SQL
SQL : Structured Query Language.
It is a language that provides an interface to relational database systems.
SQL was developed by IBM in the 1970s for use in System R.
SQL is a de facto standard, as well as an ISO and ANSI standard..
It is a special-purpose, nonprocedural language that supports the definition, manipulation, and control of data in relational database management systems.
SQL Introduction - Introduction to SQL
SQL allows users to access data in relational database management systems, such as Oracle,Informix,Sybase, Microsoft SQL Server, Access etc.
SQL allows users to manipulate and define the data in a database.
SQL is an ANSI standard computer language
Strucured Query Language
SQL may frequently pronounced “sequel” but the alternate pronunciation “S.Q.L.” is also used. As the name implies, SQL is a computer language that you use to interact with a database. In fact, SQL works with a specific type of database, called a relational database.
SQL is more than a query tool, although that was its original purpose, and retrieving data is still one of its most important functions. SQL is used to control all of the functions of DBMS which provides for its users, including:
Data Definition Language. In DDL user define the structure and organization of the stored data and relationships among the stored data items.
Data Retrieval Language. An application program to retrieve stored data from the database and use it.
Data Manipulation Language. DML allows a user or an application program to update the database by adding new data, removing old data, and modifying previously stored data.
Data Control Language. DCL can be used to restrict a user’s ability to retrieve, add, and modify data, protecting stored data against unauthorized access.
Data sharing. Is used to coordinate data sharing by concurrent users, ensuring that they do not interfere with one another.
Data intigrity. It defines integrity constraints in the database, protecting it from corruption due to inconsistent updates or system failures.
SQL Queries
Query is a loose term that refers to a widely available set of SQL commands called clauses. Each clause or command performs some sort of function against the database. For instance, the create clause creates tables in databse and the select clause selects rows that have been inserted into your tables.
Construction of Query begins with one of the following clauses:
Add
Drop
Create
Insert
Select
Update
Replace
Delete
SQL Query Syntax
The syntax of a query is loose, meaning you are free to place line breaks and spacing where you please without injuring the code.Few instances require parentheses, including the insert statement listed below. Parentheses will also be covered during our Functions lesson. Be sure to end all query statements with a semicolon (;).
SQL Code:
SELECT * FROM table_name;
SQL Select Statement - Select command is use to select data from the tables
Select Command
Select command is use to select data from the tables located in a database.If we need to SELECT information FROM a table.
The most basic SQL structure:
SELECT "column_name" FROM "table_name"
To illustrate the above example, assume that we have the following table Name "Store_Information" :
store_name Sales Date
Los Angeles $1500 Jan-05-2005
San Diego $250 Jan-07-2005
Los Angeles $300 Jan-08-2005
Boston $700 Jan-08-2005
To select all the stores in this table
SELECT store_name FROM Store_Information
Output
Store_name
Los Angeles
San Diego
Los Angeles
Boston
Distinct Keyword:
The SELECT keyword allows us to take all information from a column (or columns) on a table. Of course, there is probability of redundancies. What if we only want to select each DISTINCT element? This is easy to accomplish in SQL. All we need to do is to add DISTINCT after SELECT. The syntax is as follows:
SELECT DISTINCT "column_name" FROM "table_name"
For example, to select all distinct stores in Table "Store_Information".
SELECT DISTINCT store_name FROM Store_Information
Output
Store_name
Los Angeles
San Diego
Boston
SQL WHERE Clause - To conditionally select the data from a table
The WHERE Clause
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WHERE Syntax
To conditionally select the data from a table the WHERE clause is used . eg.if we want to retrieve stores with sales above $1,000. To do this, we use the WHERE keyword. The syntax is as follows:
SELECT "column_name"
FROM "table_name"
WHERE "condition"
For example, to select all stores with sales above $1,000 in Table Store_Information.
store_name Sales Date
Los Angeles $1500 Jan-05-2005
San Diego $250 Jan-07-2005
Los Angeles $300 Jan-08-2005
Boston $700 Jan-08-2005
SQL command
SELECT store_name
FROM Store_Information
WHERE Sales > 1000
Notes: SQL uses single quotes around string values (most database systems will also accept double quotes). Numeric values not be enclosed in quotes.
Output
store_name
Los Angeles
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The following operators can be used with where clause:
Operator Description
= Equal
<> Not equal
> Greater than
< Less than
>= Greater than or equal
<= Less than or equal
BETWEEN Between an inclusive range
LIKE Search for a pattern
Note:In some versions of SQL the <> operator is equivalent to != operator
SQL Insert Statement -
The insert clause has one function; to insert data into a table.
Insert Command
The insert clause has one function; to insert data into a table. Insert populates each table column with a value. Rows are inserted one right after another into the coresponding column.
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SQL Code:
INSERT INTO employees (Lastname,Firstname,Title)
VALUES(Johnson,David,crew);
Output
Lastname Firstname Title
Johnson David crew
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SQL - Insert defaults and nulls
We mentioned setting up default or null values for table columns. Simply placing the word default or null, in place of a value is the solution.
SQL Code:
INSERT INTO employees (Lastname,Firstname,Title)
VALUES('Hively','Jessica',DEFAULT);
or
INSERT INTO employees (Lastname,Firstname,Title)
VALUES('Hively','Jessica',NULL);
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SQL - Inserting multilpe values
Here's an example of how to insert more than one record at a time. Many web developers will use the single example above along with HTML forms to continually insert and update their SQL tables.
SQL Code:
INSERT INTO employees VALUES
(DEFAULT,'Hicks','Freddy','crew'),
(DEFAULT,'Harris','Joel','crew'),
(DEFAULT,'Davis','Julie','manager');
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SQL - Insert into multiple tables
This concept isn't widely supported by open source database programs, however they do offer alternative methods to achieve the same goal. The idea is to insert similar record values into 2 or more tables with one statement. Using the example from above, we want to place Julie's information into our manager table as well as the general employee table.
SQL Code:
INSERT ALL INTO employees (Lastname,Firstname,Title)
VALUES('Davis','Julie','manager')
INTO manager (training,salary)
VALUES ('yadayada','22500');
SQL Update Statement
- This command updates the column values of a table.
Update Command
This command updates the column values of a table.Update requires a conditional statement for selecting the row which is to be updated.
Syntax:
UPDATE employees
SET Lastname = 'Fletcher' WHERE Firstname = 'David';
Output
Lastname Firstname Title
Fletcher David crew
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Updating Multiple Rows
With the use of operators and expressions, update allows for the manipulation of several rows at once.
Syntax:
UPDATE employees
SET Title = UPPER(Title);
Output
ID Lastname Firstname Title
1 Fletcher David CREW
2 Hively Jessica CREW
9 Hicks Freddy CREW
10 Harris Joel CREW
11 Davis Julie MANAGER
Note:-By using UPPER expression we changed our Title field to all capital letters.
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SQL Delete Statement
- Delete command removes Entire rows from a table.
SQL DELETE Statement
Delete command removes Entire rows from a table.
Syntax:
DELETE FROM employees WHERE id='4';
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For Deleting Multiple Rows
Delete may use with SQL operators as well as subqueries to delete any or all rows that apply to our conditional.
Syntax
DELETE * FROM employees;
Note:The above example delete each row from employees table
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SQL Truncate statement
Truncate removes all the rows from the table and cannot be Rollbacked, while delete removes all or specific rows from table and can be rollbacked. Truncate is used for HUGE databases & Delete will work efficiently on small database table.
Syntax:
TRUNCATE TABLE employees;
SQL Order By Clause - Order By Command The order by statement allows for table column range. WHERE keyword might be used to conditionally select data from a table.
Order By Command
The order by statement allows for table column range. It allows for ascending or descending lists of column values, permitting SQL to reorder your table rows for the purpose of viewing.
Syntax:
SELECT * FROM employees ORDER BY Lastname;
Output:-
Lastname Firstname Title
Davis Julie manager
Harris Joel crew
Hicks Freddy crew
Hively Jessica crew
Johnson David crew
The above example arrange our rows of data alphabetically by lastname.
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Ordering by two different columns
First we alphabatize our job titles and again we order by lastname.
Syntax:
SELECT * FROM employees ORDER BY Title,Lastname;
Output:-
Lastname Firstname Title
Harris Joel crew
Hicks Freddy crew
Hively Jessica crew
Johnson David crew
Davis Julie manager
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SQL AND OR Operator
- WHERE keyword might be used to conditionally select data from a table.
SQL And Or Operator
WHERE keyword might be used to conditionally select data from a table. This condition can be a simple condition or it can be a compound condition.Compound conditions are made up of multiple simple conditions connected by AND/OR. There is no limit to the number of conditions that can be present in a single SQL statement.
Syntax of Compound condition
SELECT "column_name"
FROM "table_name"
WHERE "simple condition"
{[AND|OR] "simple condition"}+
Note:-The {}+ means that the expression inside the bracket will occur one or many times.AND and OR can be used interchangeably. In addition,to indicate the order of the condition we may use the parenthesis sign ().
e.g. we may wish to select all store_name with sales greater than $1,000 or all stores with sales less than $500 but greater than $275 in Table Store_Information,
Store_name Sales Date
Los Angeles $1500 Jan-05-2005
San Diego $250 Jan-07-2005
Los Angeles $300 Jan-08-2005
Boston $700 Jan-08-2005
For selecting the store_name following Query:
SELECT store_name FROM Store_Information WHERE Sales > 1000 OR (Sales < 500 AND Sales > 275)
Output
store_name
Los Angeles
San Francisco
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SQL in operator
- A special kind of operator which uses with where clauses.
SQL In Operator
In is a special kind of operator which uses with where clauses. In the where expression only one value is allowed to be sent through the query. With help of in operator you can send multiple values in the where clause.
The syntax of IN keyword is as follows:
Syntax
SELECT "column_name" FROM "table_name" WHERE "column_name" IN ('value1', 'value2', ...)
Let's you wish to select all records for the Los Angeles and the San Diego stores in Table Store_Information,
The Values inside parenthesis can be one or more, with each values separated by comma. Values can be characters or numerical. If there is only one value inside the parenthesis, then command is equivalent to :-
WHERE "column_name" = 'value1'
Store_name Sales Date
Los Angeles $1500 Jan-05-2005
San Diego $250 Jan-07-2005
Los Angeles $300 Jan-08-2005
Boston $700 Jan-08-2005
Command
SELECT * FROM Store_Information WHERE store_name IN ('Los Angeles', 'San Diego')
Output
Store_name Sales Date
Los Angeles $1500 Jan-05-2005
San Diego $250 Jan-07-2005
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SQL Between
- The BETWEEN keyword allows for selecting a values in range.
SQL - Between
The BETWEEN keyword allows for selecting a values in range. The syntax for the BETWEEN clause is given below
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Syntax:
SELECT "column_name"
FROM "table_name"
WHERE "column_name" BETWEEN 'value1' AND 'value2'
It select all rows whose column has a value between 'value1' and 'value2'.
For example,to select all sales information between January 6, 2005, and January 10, 2005, in Table Store_Information
Store_name Sales Date
Los Angeles $1500 Jan-05-2005
San Diego $250 Jan-07-2005
Los Angeles $300 Jan-08-2005
Boston $700 Jan-08-2005
Syntax
SELECT *
FROM Store_Information
WHERE Date BETWEEN 'Jan-06-2005' AND 'Jan-10-2005'
Note:Date may be stored in different formats in different databases.
Output
Store_name Sales Date
San Diego $250 Jan-07-2005
Los Angeles $300 Jan-08-2005
Boston $700 Jan-08-2005
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SQL Aliases
- Aliases for table and column.
SQL Alias
Most frequently two types of aliases are used:-
Column Alias
Table Alias.
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Column Name Alias Syntax:-
SELECT column AS column_alias FROM table
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Table Name Alias
Syntax :-
SELECT column FROM table AS table_alias
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Example:
Column aliases exist to organizing output.In the previous example, whenever there is total sales, it is listed as SUM(sales). While this is understandable, we can have many cases where the column heading can be complicated (especially if it involves several arithmetic operations). Using a column alias its make the output much more readable.
Second is the table alias.This is accomplished by putting an alias directly after the table name in the FROM clause. This is convenient when you want to obtain information from two separate tables ('perform joins'). The advantage of using a table alias when doing joins is readily apparent when we talk about joins.
Both types of aliases are placed directly after the item they alias for, separate by a white space. We again use our table, Store_Information,
Syntax
SELECT A1.store_name Store, SUM(A1.Sales) "Total Sales"
FROM Store_Information A1
GROUP BY A1.store_name
Output
Store Total Sales
Los Angeles $1800
San Diego $250
Boston $700
Notice that difference in the result that the column titles are now different. That is the result of using the column alias. Notice that instead of the somewhat cryptic "Sum(Sales)", we now have "Total Sales", which is much more understandable, as the column header. The advantage of using a table alias is not visible in this example. However, they will become evident in the Join Section
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SQL Join
- Combines columns of one table to that of another.
SQL Join
To create a single table the join clause combines columns of one table to that of another. Join matches up a column with one table to a column in another. A join query does not alter table, but temporarily combines data from each table to be viewed as a single table.Mainly three types of join statements:-
Inner/Equi Join
Left Join
Right Join
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Inner Join :-
An inner join returns all matching rows.For example given below
Table:-Store_Information
Store_name Sales Date
Los Angeles $1500 Jan-05-1999
San Diego $250 Jan-07-1999
Los Angeles $300 Jan-08-1999
Boston $700 Jan-08-1999
Table:-Geography
Region_name Store_name
East Boston
East New York
West Los Angeles
West San Diego
Let us we want to find out sales by region. For geting the sales information by region, we have to combine the information from the two tables.Examining the two tables, we find that they are linked via the common field, "store_name". First present the SQL Query and then explain the use:
SELECT A1.region_name REGION, SUM(A2.Sales) SALES
FROM Geography A1, Store_Information A2
WHERE A1.store_name = A2.store_name
GROUP BY A1.region_name
Output:-
REGION SALES
East $700
West $2050
The first two lines tell SQL to select two fields, the first one is the field "region_name" from table Geography (aliased as REGION), and the second one is the sum of the field "Sales" from table Store_Information (aliased as SALES). Notice how the table aliases are used here: Geography is aliased as A1, and Store_Information is aliased as A2. Without the aliasing, the first line would become
SELECT Geography.region_name REGION, SUM(Store_Information.Sales) SALES
which is much more bulky. In essence, table aliases make the entire SQL statement easier to understand, especially when multiple tables are included.
Next, we turn our attention to line 3, the WHERE statement. This is where the condition of the join is specified. In this case, we want to make sure that the content in "store_name" in table Geography matches that in table Store_Information, and the way to do it is to set them equal. This WHERE statement is essential in making sure you get the correct output. Without the correct WHERE statement, a Cartesian Join will result. Cartesian joins will result in the query returning every possible combination of the two (or whatever the number of tables in the FROM statement) tables. In this case, a Cartesian join would result in a total of 4 x 4 = 16 rows being returned.
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SQL - Left Join
A Left join returns all rows of the left of the conditional even if there is no right column to match.
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SQL - Right Join
A right join will display rows on the right side of the conditional that may or may not have a match.
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SQL Outer Join - A type of join.
SQL Outer Join
Previously, we had looked at inner join, where we select rows common to the participating tables to a join. One case is that if we are interested in selecting elements in a table regardless of whether they are present in the second table? We will now need to use the SQL OUTER JOIN command.
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Example:
The syntax for performing an outer join in SQL is database-dependent. For example, in Oracle, we will place an "(+)" in the WHERE clause on the other side of the table for which we want to include all the rows.
Let's we have the following two tables,
Table:-Store_Information
Store_name Sales Date
Los Angeles $1500 Jan-05-2005
San Diego $250 Jan-07-2005
Los Angeles $300 Jan-08-2005
Boston $700 Jan-08-2005
Table:-Geography
Region_name Store_name
East Boston
East New York
West Los Angeles
West San Diego
If we want to find out sales by region. We see that table Geography includes information on regions and stores, and table Store_Information contains sales information for each store. To get the sales information by region, we have to combine the information from the two tables. Examining the two tables, we find that they are linked via the common field, "store_name".
SELECT A1.store_name, SUM(A2.Sales) SALES
FROM Geography A1, Store_Information A2
WHERE A1.store_name = A2.store_name (+)
GROUP BY A1.store_name
Output:-
Store_name SALES
Boston $700
New York
Los Angeles $1800
San Diego $250
Note: When there is no match on the second table NULL is returned . In this case, "New York" does not appear in the table Store_Information, thus its corresponding "SALES" column is NULL.
SQL Union
- Combine the results of two queries together.
SQL Union
SQL UNION combine the results of two queries together. In this respect, UNION is similar to JOIN in that they are both used to related information from multiple tables. One restriction of UNION is that all corresponding columns need to be of the same data type and UNION only select distinct values.
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Syntax:
[SQL Statement 1]
UNION
[SQL Statement 2]
Table Store_Information
Store_name Sales Date
Los Angeles $1500 Jan-05-2005
San Diego $250 Jan-07-2005
Los Angeles $300 Jan-08-2005
Boston $700 Jan-08-2005
Table Internet_Sales
Date Sales
Jan-07-2005 $250
Jan-10-2005 $535
Jan-11-2005 $320
Jan-12-2005 $750
If we want to find out all the dates where there is a sales transaction.We use the following SQL statement:
SELECT Date FROM Store_Information
UNION
SELECT Date FROM Internet_Sales
Output:
Date
Jan-05-2005
Jan-07-2005
Jan-08-2005
Jan-10-2005
Jan-11-2005
Jan-12-2005
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SQL UNION ALL
The SQL UNION ALL command is also to combine the results of two queries together. The difference between UNION ALL and UNION is that, UNION ALL selects all values while UNION only selects distinct values.
Syntax :
SELECT Date FROM Store_Information
UNION ALL
SELECT Date FROM Internet_Sales
Output :
Date
Jan-05-2005
Jan-07-2005
Jan-08-2005
Jan-08-2005
Jan-07-2005
Jan-10-2005
Jan-11-2005
Jan-12-2005
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SQL Subqueries
- Queries placed within an existing SQL statement.
SQL Subqueries
Subqueries are queries placed within an existing SQL statement. MySQL offers a very limited support for subqueries, however Oracle and DB2 fully support them. They may exist in any of the following types of SQL statements.
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Syntax:
SELECT "column_name1"
FROM "table_name1"
WHERE "column_name2" [Comparison Operator]
(SELECT "column_name3"
FROM "table_name2"
WHERE [Condition])
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Example:
Table: Store_Information
Store_name Sales Date
Los Angeles $1500 Jan-05-2005
San Diego $250 Jan-07-2005
Los Angeles $300 Jan-08-2005
Boston $700 Jan-08-2005
Table: Internet_Sales
Date Sales
Jan-07-2005 $250
Jan-10-2005 $535
Jan-11-2005 $320
Jan-12-2005 $750
If we want to use a subquery to find the sales of all stores in the West region. Then we use the following SQL statement:
SELECT SUM(Sales) FROM Store_Information
WHERE Store_name IN
(SELECT store_name FROM Geography
WHERE region_name = 'West')
Output:
SUM(Sales)
2050
Here instead of joining the two tables directly and then adding up only the sales amount for stores in the West region, we use subquery to find out which stores are in the West region and then add the sales amount for these stores.
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SQL Date Function
- All SQL platform has its own version of date functions.
SQL Dates
All SQL platform has its own version of date functions.
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SQL - Timestamp
A timestamp servers as the catch all for dates and times. Retrieving a timestamp is very simple and the result can be manipulated in nearly every way possible.
Syntax:
Select Current_Timestamp;
Return a Timestamp:
2005-06-22 11:33:11.840
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SQL Date Functions
By using any of the following date functions it is possible to breakdown timestamps into their individual pieces.
SQL Function Code:
SELECT MONTH(CURRENT_TIMESTAMP);- Return a Month(6)
SELECT DAY(CURRENT_TIMESTAMP);-Return a Day:(22)
SELECT DATE(CURRENT_TIMESTAMP); - returns a date (2004-06-22)
SELECT TIME(CURRENT_TIMESTAMP); - returns the time (10:33:11.840)
SELECT DAYOFWEEK(CURRENT_TIMESTAMP); - returns a numeric value (1-7)
SELECT DAYOFMONTH(CURRENT_TIMESTAMP); - returns a day of month (1-31)
SELECT DAYOFYEAR(CURRENT_TIMESTAMP); - returns the day of the year (1-365)
SELECT MONTHNAME(CURRENT_TIMESTAMP); - returns the month name (January - December)
SELECT DAYNAME(CURRENT_TIMESTAMP); - returns the name of the day (Sunday - Saturday)
SELECT WEEK(CURRENT_TIMESTAMP); - returns number of the week (1-53)
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SQL Create Statement
- Create statement in SQL
Create Table Statement :
Tables are the structure where data is stored in the database. In most cases, there is no way for the database vendor to know ahead of time what your data storage needs are, then tables in the database makes itself. Many database tools allow you to create tables automatically,but always tables are the container of all the data, it is important to include the CREATE TABLE syntax in this tutorial.
Tables are divided into rows and columns. Each row represents one piece of data, and each column represent a component of piece of data.Example, if we have a table for recording customer information, then the columns may include information such as First Name, Last Name, birth Date, Address, City, Country, and so on. As a result, when we specify a table, we include the column headers and the data types for that particular column.
Data comes in a variety of forms. It could be an integer (such as 1), a real number (such as 0.55), a date/time expression (such as '2000-JAN-25 03:22:22'),a string (such as 'sql'), or even in binary format. When we specify a table, we need to specify the data type associated with each column (i.e., we will specify that 'First Name' is of type char(40) - meaning it is a string with 40 characters). One thing to note is that different relational databases allow for different data types.
Syntax
CREATE TABLE "table_name"
("column 1" "data_type_for_column_1",
"column 2" "data_type_for_column_2",
... )
Example
CREATE TABLE customer
(First_Name char(50),
Last_Name char(50),
Address char(50),
City char(50),
Country char(25),
Birth_Date date)
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Create Index Statement
Index are used to retrieve data from tables by quicker way. Let's use an example it is much quicker for us to go to the index section at the end of the book, locate which pages contain information that we want and then go to these pages directly. Going to the index first saves us time and is by far a more efficient method for locating the information we need.
This principle applies for retrieving data from a database table. Without an index, the database system reads through the entire table (this process is called a 'table scan') to locate the desired information. With the proper index the database system can then first go through the index to find out where to retrieve the data, and then go to these locations directly to get the needed data. This is much faster.
Therefore, it is often desirable to create indexes on tables. An index can cover one or more columns.
Syntax
CREATE INDEX "INDEX_NAME" ON "TABLE_NAME" (COLUMN_NAME)
Example
CREATE INDEX IDX_CUSTOMER_LAST_NAME on CUSTOMER (Last_Name)
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Primary Key
A primary key is used to uniquely identify each row in a table. It can either be part of the actual record itself , or it can be an artificial field (one that has nothing to do with the actual record). A primary key consist of one or more fields on a table. When multiple fields are used as a primary key then it is called composite key.
Primary keys can be specified either when the table is created or by changing the existing table structure with alter command.
CREATE TABLE Customer (SID integer, Last_Name varchar(30), First_Name varchar(30), PRIMARY KEY (SID));
ALTER TABLE Customer ADD PRIMARY KEY (SID);
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Foreign Key
A foreign key is a field that points to the primary key of another table. The purpose of the foreign key is to ensure referential integrity means only values that are supposed to appear in the database are permitted.
For example, say we have two tables, a CUSTOMER table that includes all customer data, and an ORDERS table that includes all customer orders. The constraint here is that all orders must be associated with a customer that is already in the CUSTOMER table. In this case, we will place a foreign key on the ORDERS table and have it relate to the primary key of the CUSTOMER table. By this way, we can ensure that all orders in the ORDERS table are related to a customer in the CUSTOMER table. In other words, the ORDERS table cannot contain information on a customer that is not in the CUSTOMER table.
Both Table is given below:-
Table CUSTOMERS
column name characteristic
SID Primary Key
Last_Name
First_Name
Table ORDERS
column name characteristic
Order_ID Primary Key
Order_Date
Customer_SID Foreign Key
Amount
In the above example, the Customer_SID column in the ORDERS table is a foreign key pointing to the SID column in the CUSTOMER table.
Syntax
CREATE TABLE ORDERS
(Order_ID integer,
Order_Date date,
Customer_SID integer,
Amount double,
Primary Key (Order_ID),
Foreign Key (Customer_SID) references CUSTOMER(SID));
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SQL Drop Statement
- Delete an existing index in a table with the DROP INDEX statement.
SQL Drop Index, Table and Database
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Drop Index
You can delete an existing index in a table with the DROP INDEX statement.
Syntax: Microsoft Access
DROP INDEX index_name ON table_name
Syntax: MS SQL Server
DROP INDEX table_name.index_name
Syntax: IBM DB2 and Oracle
DROP INDEX index_name
Syntax: MySQL
ALTER TABLE table_name DROP INDEX index_name
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Delete a Table or Database
To delete a table (the table structure, attributes, and indexes will also be deleted):
DROP TABLE table_name
To delete a database:
DROP DATABASE database_name
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SQL Alter
- Change the structure of the table.
SQL Alter Table
Once a table is created in the database, there are many condition where we have to change the structure of the table.
Add a column
Drop a column
Change a column name
Change the data type for a column
changing the primary key specification
Syntax
ALTER TABLE "table_name" [alter specification]
Let's use above syntax with "customer" table
Column Name Data Type
First_Name char(50)
Last_Name char(50)
Address char(50)
City char(50)
Country char(25)
Birth_Date date
If we want to add a column called "Gender" to this table. Syntax given below:
ALTER table customer add Gender char(1)
If we want to rename "Address" to "Addr".Syntax given below:
ALTER table customer change Address Addr char(50)
If we want to change the data type for "Addr" to char(30).Syntax given below:
ALTER table customer modify Addr char(30)
If we want to drop the column "Gender".Syntax given below:
ALTER table customer drop Gender
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SQL Function
- A function is a special type of command that return a single value.
SQL Functions
A function is a special type of command that return a single value.
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Types of Functions
The basic types of functions are:-
Aggregate functions
It operate against a collection of values, but return a single Value.
Scalar functions
It operate against a single value, and return a single value based on the input value.Functions like CURRENT_TIME for example, do not require any arguments.
Syntax:
SELECT function(column) FROM table
Aggregate Functions
It return a single value based upon a set of other values. If used among many other expressions in the item list of a SELECT statement, the SELECT must have a GROUP BY clause. No GROUP BY clause is required if the aggregate function is the only value retrieved by the SELECT statement
Supported aggregate functions are:
Function Usage
AVG(expression) Computes the average value of a column by the expression
COUNT(expression) Counts the rows defined by the expression
COUNT(*) Counts all rows in the specified table or view
MIN(expression) Finds the minimum value in a column by the expression
MAX(expression) Finds the maximum value in a column by the expression
SUM(expression) Computes the sum of column values by the expression
Example:
SELECT COUNT(*) FROM customers;
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Scalar Functions
Different categories of Scalar Function are:-
Built-in Function
Date & Time Function
Numeric Function
String Function
Some Scalar Functions are:-
Function Description
UCASE(c) Converts a field to upper case
LCASE(c) Converts a field to lower case
MID(c,start[,end]) Extract characters from a text field
LEN(c) Returns the length of a text field
INSTR(c,char) Returns the numeric position of a named character within a text field
LEFT(c,number_of_char) Return the left part of a text field requested
RIGHT(c,number_of_char) Return the right part of a text field requested
ROUND(c,decimals) Rounds a numeric field to the number of decimals specified
MOD(x,y) Returns the remainder of a division operation
NOW() Returns the current system date
FORMAT(c,format) Changes the way a field is displayed
DATEDIFF(d,date1,date2) Used to perform date calculations
SQL Group By Statement
- The aggregate of all column values.
Group By clause
When Aggregate functions (like SUM) called it return the aggregate of all column values.It was impossible to find the sum for each individual group of column values so Group By clause used.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Syntax:
SELECT "column_name1", SUM("column_name2") FROM "table_name" GROUP BY "column_name1"
Let's following table "Store_Information"
Store_name Sales Date
Los Angeles $1500 Jan-05-2005
San Diego $250 Jan-07-2005
Los Angeles $300 Jan-08-2005
Boston $700 Jan-08-2005
To find total sales for each store:-
SELECT store_name, SUM(Sales)
FROM Store_Information
GROUP BY store_name
Output
Store_name SUM(Sales)
Los Angeles $1800
San Diego $250
Boston $700
The GROUP BY keyword is used when selecting multiple columns from tables and at least one arithmetic operator appears in the SELECT statement.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Having Clause
To limit the output based on the corresponding sum (or any other aggregate functions). For example, we might want to see only the stores with sales over $1,500. Instead of using the WHERE clause in the SQL statement, though, we need to use the HAVING clause, which is reserved for aggregate functions. The HAVING clause is placed near the end of the SQL statement. SQL statement with the HAVING clause may or may not include the GROUP BY clause.
Syntax: Having Clause
SELECT "column_name1", SUM("column_name2")
FROM "table_name"
GROUP BY "column_name1"
HAVING (arithmetic function condition)
In our example, table "Store_Information" we would type.
SELECT store_name, SUM(sales)
FROM Store_Information
GROUP BY store_name
HAVING SUM(sales) > 1500
Output
store_name SUM(Sales)
Los Angeles $1800
SQL Select Into
- Make a backup copy
Select into Statement
To create a make-table query means for making backup copies of tables and reports, or for archiving records.
Syntax
SELECT column_name(s) INTO newtable [IN externaldatabase] FROM source
Make a Backup Copy
The example given below makes a backup copy of the "Persons" table:
SELECT * INTO [Customers Backup] FROM Customers;
The IN clause may be used to copy tables into another database:
SELECT Suppliers.* INTO Suppliers IN 'Backup.mdb' FROM Suppliers;
If you only want to copy a few fields not copy whole Table, you can do so by listing them after the SELECT statement. The following query creates a Fiddlers table by extracting the names of fiddlers from a Musicians table:
SELECT Name INTO Fiddlers
FROM Musicians
WHERE Instrument = 'fiddle';
The fields which you copy into a new table need not come from just one table. You can copy from multiple tables as demonstrated in the next example which selects fields from the two tables Suppliers and Products to create a new table for Mexican Suppliers:
SELECT Suppliers.Name, Product, Products.UnitPrice
INTO [Mexican Suppliers]
FROM Suppliers INNER JOIN Products
ON Suppliers.ProductID = Products.ProductID
WHERE Suppliers.Country = 'Mexico';
The SELECT...INTO statement doesn't define a primary key for the new table, so you may want to do that manually.
-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
SQL Create View
- Virtual table based on the result-set of a SELECT statement.
View?
A VIEW is a virtual table based on the result-set of a SELECT statement. A view contains rows and columns like a real table. The fields in a view consist fields from one or more real tables in the database.
Syntax:
Views may be considered as virtual tables. Generalize way a table has a set of definition, and it physically stores the data. A view also has a set of definitions, which is build on top of table(s) or other view(s), and it does not physically store the data.
CREATE VIEW "VIEW_NAME" AS "SQL Statement"
Example:
TABLE Customer
(First_Name char(50),
Last_Name char(50),
Address char(50),
City char(50),
Country char(25),
Birth_Date date)
and we want to create a view called V_Customer that contains only the First_Name, Last_Name, and Country columns from this table, we would type in,
CREATE VIEW V_Customer
AS SELECT First_Name, Last_Name, Country
FROM Customer
Now we have a view called V_Customer with the following structure:
View V_Customer
(First_Name char(50),
Last_Name char(50),
Country char(25))
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Apply View on Joins
To joins two or more tables view can be used. In this case, users only see one view rather than two tables, and the SQL statement users need to issue becomes much simpler. Let's say we have the following two tables:
Table:Store_Information
Store_name Sales Date
Los Angeles $1500 Jan-05-2005
San Diego $250 Jan-07-2005
Los Angeles $300 Jan-08-2005
Boston $700 Jan-08-2005
Table: Geography
region_name store_name
East Boston
East New York
West Los Angeles
West San Diego
If we want to build a view that has sales by region information. We would issue the following SQL statement:
CREATE VIEW V_REGION_SALES
AS SELECT A1.region_name REGION, SUM(A2.Sales) SALES
FROM Geography A1, Store_Information A2
WHERE A1.store_name = A2.store_name
GROUP BY A1.region_name
It gives a view called V_REGION_SALES, that has been defined to store sales by region records. If we want to find out the content of this view then following query:
SELECT * FROM V_REGION_SALES
Output:
REGION SALES
East $700
West $2050
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
SQL Server - SQL server
SQL Servers - RDBMS
Modern SQL Servers used Relational Data Base Management System.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
DBMS - Database Management System
A DBMS is a computer program that can access data from a database.
The DBMS program enables you to modify,store and extract information from a database.
DBMS programs provides different functions for querying data, modifying data and reporting data.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
RDBMS - Relational Database Management System
A RDBMS is a Database Management System where the database is organized and accessed according to the relationships between data stored in table.
it was invented by IBM in the early 1970's.
RDBMS is the base of SQL for all modern database systems like Oracle, SQL Server, IBM DB2, Mesql, Sybase and Microsoft Access.
SELECT * FROM V_REGION_SALES
SQL Summary - Summary
SQL Summary
Now you have been introduced to the standard language of SQL . including the client/server systems, relational database and Web-based database systems, all of which are fundamental of understanding of SQL.
The database that will be used during your course of study was also introduced. The database, which you have seen has consisted of a few tables, which are related to one another, and the data that each table contains at this point. You should have acquired some concept of a modern database and overall background knowledge of the fundamentals of SQL.
This tutorial also taught the how to access and manipulat database systems.
You have learned how to execute queries,insert new records, retrieve data, delete records and update records in a database with SQL.
Wednesday, September 24, 2008
9 Sample papers for ISTQB Examination
Sample Paper 9
1. Deciding How much testing is enough should take into account :-
i. Level of Risk including Technical and Business product and project risk
ii. Project constraints such as time and budget
iii. Size of Testing Team
iv. Size of the Development Team
a) i,ii,iii are true and iv is false
b) i,,iv are true and ii is false
c) i,ii are true and iii,iv are false
d) ii,iii,iv are true and i is false
2. Test planning has which of the following major tasks?
i. Determining the scope and risks, and identifying the objectives of testing.
ii. Determining the test approach (techniques,test items, coverage, identifying and interfacing the teams involved in testing , testware)
iii. Reviewing the Test Basis (such as requirements,architecture,design,interface)
iv. Determining the exit criteria.
a) i,ii,iv are true and iii is false
b) i,,iv are true and ii is false
c) i,ii are true and iii,iv are false
d) ii,iii,iv are true and i is false
3. Evaluating testability of the requirements and system are a part of which phase:-
a) Test Analysis and Design
b) Test Planning and control
c) Test Implementation and execution
d) Evaluating exit criteria and reporting
4. One of the fields on a form contains a text box which accepts alphabets in lower or upper case. Indentify the invalid Equivalance class value.
a. CLASS
b. cLASS
c. CLass
d. CLa01ss
5. In a system designed to work out the tax to be paid:
An employee has £4000 of salary tax free. The next £1500 is taxed at 10% The next £28000 is taxed at 22% Any further amount is taxed at 40% Which of these groups of numbers would fall into the same equivalence class?
a) £4800; £14000; £28000
b) £5200; £5500; £28000
c) £28001; £32000; £35000
d) £5800; £28000; £32000
6. Which of the following has highest level of independence in which test cases are :
a) Designed by persons who write the software under test
b) Designed by a person from a different section
c) Designed by a person from a different organization
d) Designed by another person
7. We use the output of the requirement analysis, the requirement specification as the input for writing :-
a) User Acceptance Test Cases
b) Integration Level Test Cases
c) Unit Level Test Cases
d) Program specifications
8. Validation involves which of the following
i. Helps to check the Quality of the Built Product
ii. Helps to check that we have built the right product.
iii. Helps in developing the product
iv. Monitoring tool wastage and obsoleteness.
a) Options i,ii,iii,iv are true.
b) ii is true and i,iii,iv are false
c) i,ii,iii are true and iv is false
d) iii is true and i,ii,iv are false.
9. Which of the following uses Impact Analysis most?
a) Component testing
b) Non-functional system testing
c) User acceptance testing
d) Maintenance testing
10. What is the expected result for each of the following test cases?
A. Citibank card member, holding a Silver room
B. Non Citibank-member, holding a Platinum room
a) A – Don’t offer any upgrade, B – Don’t offer any upgrade.
b) A – Don’t offer any upgrade, B – Offer upgrade to Gold.
c) A – Offer upgrade to Silver, B – Offer upgrade to Silver.
d) A – Offer upgrade to Gold, B – Don’t offer any upgrade.
11. Repeated Testing of an already tested program, after modification, to discover any defects introduced or uncovered as a result of the changes in the software being tested or in another related or unrelated software component:
a) Re Testing .
b) Confirmation Testing
c) Regression Testing
d) Negative Testing
12. Impact Analysis helps to decide :-a) How much regression testing should be done.
b) Exit Criteria
c) How many more test cases need to written.
d) Different Tools to perform Regression Testing
13. Functional system testing is:
a) testing that the system functions with other systems
b) testing that the components that comprise the system function together
c) testing the end to end functionality of the system as a whole
d) testing the system performs functions within specified response times
14. Consider the above state transition diagram of a switch.
Which of the following represents an invalid state transition?
a) OFF to ON
b) ON to OFF
c) FAULT to ON
15. Peer Reviews are also called as :-a) Inspection
b) Walkthrough
c) Technical Review
d) Formal Review
16. Consider the following statements:
i. 100% statement coverage guarantees 100% branch coverage.
ii. 100% branch coverage guarantees 100% statement coverage.
iii. 100% branch coverage guarantees 100% decision coverage.
iv. 100% decision coverage guarantees 100% branch coverage.
v. 100% statement coverage guarantees 100% decision coverage.
a) ii is True; i, iii, iv & v are False
b) i & v are True; ii, iii & iv are False
c) ii & iii are True; i, iv & v are False
d) ii, iii & iv are True; i & v are False
17. The Kick Off phase of a formal review includes the following :-
a) Explaining the objective
b) Fixing defects found typically done by author
c) Follow up
d) Individual Meeting preparations
18. Match every stage of the software Development Life cycle with the Testing Life cycle:i. Hi-level design a Unit tests
ii. Code b Acceptance tests
iii. Low-level design c System tests
iv. Business requirements d Integration tests
a) i-d , ii-a , iii-c , iv-b
b) i-c , ii-d , iii-a , iv-b
c) i-b , ii-a , iii-d , iv-c
d) i-c , ii-a , iii-d , iv-b
19. Which of the following is not phase of the Fundamental Test Process?a) Test Planning and Control
b) Test implementation and Execution
c) Requirement Analysis
d) Evaluating Exit criteria and reporting
20. Which of the following techniques is NOT a black box technique?
a) State transition testing
b) LCSAJ (Linear Code Sequence and Jump)
c) syntax testing
d) boundary value analysis
21. Success Factors for a review include :
i. Each Review does not have a predefined objective
ii. Defects found are welcomed and expressed objectively
iii. Management supports a good review process.
iv. There is an emphasis on learning and process improvement.
a) ii,iii,iv are correct and i is incorrect
b) iii , i , iv is correct and ii is incorrect
c) i , iii , iv , ii is in correct
d) ii is correct
22. Defects discovered by static analysis tools include :
i. Variables that are never used.
ii. Security vulnerabilities.
iii. Programming Standard Violations
iv. Uncalled functions and procedures
a) i , ii,iii,iv is correct
b) iii ,is correct I,ii,iv are incorrect.
c) i ,ii, iii and iv are incorrect
d) iv, ii is correct
23. Test Conditions are derived from :-
a) Specifications
b) Test Cases
c) Test Data
d) Test Design
24. Which of the following is true about White and Black Box Testing Technique:-
a) Equivalance partitioning, Decision Table and Control flow are White box Testing Techniques.
b) Equivalence partitioning , Boundary Value Analysis , Data Flow are Black Box Testing Techniques.
c) Equivalence partitioning , State Transition , Use Case Testing are black box Testing Techniques.
d) Equivalence Partioning , State Transition , Use Case Testing and Decision Table are White Box Testing Techniques.
25. Regression testing should be performed:
i. every week
ii. after the software has changed
iii. as often as possible
iv. when the environment has changed
v. when the project manager says
a) i & ii are true, iii, iv & v are false
b) ii, iii & iv are true, i & v are false
c) ii & iv are true, i, iii & v are false
d) ii is true, i, iii, iv & v are false
26. Benefits of Independent Testing
a) Independent testers are much more qualified than Developers
b) Independent testers see other and different defects and are unbiased.
c) Independent Testers cannot identify defects.
d) Independent Testers can test better than developers
27. Minimum Tests Required for Statement Coverage and Branch Coverage :-Read P
Read Q
If p+q > 100 then
Print “Large”
End if
If p > 50 then
Print “pLarge”
End if
a) Statement coverage is 2, Branch Coverage is 2
b) Statement coverage is 3 and branch coverage is 2
c) Statement coverage is 1 and branch coverage is 2
d) Statement Coverage is 4 and Branch coverage is 2
28. Minimum Test Required for Statement Coverage :-Disc = 0
Order-qty = 0
Read Order-qty
If Order-qty >=20 then
Disc = 0.05
If Order-qty >=100 then
Disc =0.1
End if
End if
a) Statement coverage is 4
b) Statement coverage is 1
c) Statement coverage is 3
d) Statement Coverage is 2
29. The structure of an incident report is covered in the Standard for Software Test Documentation IEEE 829 and is called as : -
a) Anomaly Report
b) Defect Report
c) Test Defect Report
d) Test Incident Report
30. Which of the following is the task of a Test Lead / Leader.
i. Interaction with the Test Tool Vendor to identify best ways to leverage test tool on the project.
ii. Write Test Summary Reports based on the information gathered during testing
iii. Decide what should be automated , to what degree and how.
iv. Create the Test Specifications
a) i, ii, iii is true and iv is false
b) ii,iii,iv is true and i is false
c) i is true and ii,iii,iv are false
d) iii and iv is correct and i and ii are incorrect
31. Features of White Box Testing Technique :-i. We use explicit knowledge of the internal workings of the item being tested to select the test data.
ii. Uses specific knowledge of programming code to examine outputs and assumes that the tester knows the path of logic in a unit or a program.
iii. Checking for the performance of the application
iv. Also checks for functionality.
a) i, ii are true and iii and iv are false
b) iii is true and i,ii, iv are false
c) ii ,iii is true and i,iv is false
d) iii and iv are true and i,ii are false
32. Which of the following is a part of Test Closure Activities?i. Checking which planned deliverables have been delivered
ii. Defect report analysis.
iii. Finalizing and archiving testware.
iv. Analyzing lessons.
a) i , ii , iv are true and iii is false
b) i , ii , iii are true and iv is false
c) i , iii , iv are true and ii is false
d) All of above are true
33. Which of the following will be the best definition for Testing :-a) The goal / purpose of testing is to demonstrate that the program works.
b) The purpose of testing is to demonstrate that the program is defect free.
c) The purpose of testing is to demonstrate that the program does what it is supposed to do.
d) Testing is executing Software for the purpose of finding defects.
34. Which of the following is not a type of incremental testing approach?a) Top down
b) Big-bang
c) Bottom up
d) Functional incrementation.
35. Drivers are also known as:
i. Spade
ii. Test harness
iii. Scaffoldinga) i , ii are true and iii is false
b) i , iii are true and ii is false
c) ii , iii are true and i is false
d) All of the above are true
36. Exit Criteria may consist of :-i. Thoroughness measures , such as coverage of code, functionality or risk
ii. Estimates of Defect density or reliability measures.
iii. Residual risk such as defects not fixed or lack of test coverage in certain areas
iv. Verifying the Test Environment.
a) iv is correct and i,ii,iii are incorrect.
b) i,ii,iii is correct and iv is incorrect
c) ii is correct and i,ii,iii are incorrect
d) iii and iv are correct and i,ii are incorrect
37. Which of the following helps in monitoring the Test Progress:-i. Percentage of Test Case Execution
ii. Percentage of work done in test environment preparation.
iii. Defect Information e.g. defect density, defects found and fixed
iv. The size of the testing Team and skills of the engineers
a) iv is correct and i,ii,iii are incorrect
b) i,ii,iii are correct and iv is incorrect
c) i,ii are correct and iii,iv are incorrect
d) i,iv are correct and ii , iii are incorrect
38. The selection of a test approach should consider the context :-i. Risk of Failure of the Project, hazards to the product and risks of product failure to humans
ii. Skills and experience of the people in the proposed technique, tools and methods
iii. The objective of the testing endeavor and the mission of the testing team.
iv. The size of the testing Team
a) i,ii,iii,iv are true
b) i,ii,iii are true and iv is false.
c) ii,iii,iv are true and i is false.
d) i,iv are true and ii, iii are false.
39. In case of Large Systems :-a) Only few tests should be run
b) Testing should be on the basis of Risk
c) Only Good Test Cases should be executed.
d) Test Cases written by good test engineers should be executed.
40. The Provision and Management of a controlled library containing all the configurations items is called asa) Configuration Control
b) Status Accounting
c) Configuration Identification
d) Configuration Identification
Answers :
1 c
2 a
3 a
4 d
5 d
6 c
7 a
8 b
9 d
10 d
11 c
12 a
13 c
14 c
15 c
16 d
17 a
18 d
19 c
20 b
21 a
22 a
23 a
24 c
25 c
26 b
27 c
28 b
29 a
30 a
31 a
32 c
33 d
34 b
35 c
36 b
37 b
38 b
39 b
40 a
Posted by Shailaja Kiran at 03:20 0 comments
Labels: ISTQB/ISEB, Sample Papers
Wednesday, 7 May 2008
Sample Paper 8
1. Deliverables of test design phase include all the following except (Testing
artifacts)
a) Test data
b) Test data plan
c) Test summary report
d) Test procedure plan
2. Which of the following is not decided in the test-planning phase? (Testing
artifacts)
a) Schedules and deliverables
b) Hardware and software
c) Entry and exit criteria
d) Types of test cases
3. Typical defects that are easier to find in reviews than in dynamic testing are:
A. deviations from standards,
B.requirement defects,
C.design defects,
D.insufficient maintainability and incorrect interface specifications.
E.All of the above.
4. Load Testing Tools (Per. Testing)
a) reduces the time spent by the testers
b) reduces the resources spent (hardware)
c) mostly used in web testing
d) all of the above
5. Reviews, static analysis and dynamic testing have the same objective –
A.identifying defects.
B. fixing defects.
C. 1 and 2
D. None
6. Defect arrival rate curve:
A. Shows the number of newly discovered defects per unit time
B. Shows the number of open defects per unit time.
C. Shows the cumulative total number of defects found up to this time.
D. Any of these, depending on the company.
7. What are the 2 major components taken into consideration with risk analysis?
(Test Mgmt)
a) The probability the negative event will occur
b) The potential loss or impact associated with the event
c) Both a and b
d) Neither a nor b
8. We can achieve complete statement coverage but still miss bugs because:
A. The failure occurs only if you reach a statement taking the TRUE branch of an IF
statement, and you got to the statement with a test that passed through the FALSE
branch.
B. The failure depends on the program's inability to handle specific data values,
rather than on the program's flow of control.
C. Both A and B
D. We are not required to test code that customers are unlikely to execute.
9. Who is responsible for conducting test readiness review? (Performing
Test)
a. Test manager
b. Test engineer
c. both A & B
d. Project Manager
10. What if the project isn't big enough to justify extensive testing? (Test Mgmt)
a) Use risk based analysis to find out which areas need to be tested
b) Use automation tool for testing
c) a and b
d) None of the above
11. What are the key features to be concentrated upon when doing a testing for
world wide web sites (Test Execution)
a) Interaction between html pages
b) Performance on the client side
c) Security aspects
d) All of the above
12. What can be done if requirements are changing continuously? (Test Mgmt)
a) Work with the project's stakeholders early on to understand how
requirements might change so that alternate test plans and strategies
can be worked out in advance, if possible.
b) Negotiate to allow only easily-implemented new requirements into the
project, while moving more difficult new requirements into future
versions of the application
c) Both a and b
d) None of the above
13. The selection of test cases for regression testing (Testing artifacts)
a) Requires knowledge on the bug fixes and how it affect the system
b) Includes the area of frequent defects
c) Includes the area which has undergone many/recent code changes
d) All of the above
14. Measurement dysfunction is a problem because:
A. Even though the numbers you look at appear better, to achieve these numbers, people are doing other aspects of their work much less well.B. We don't know how to measure a variable (our measurement is dysfunctional) and
so we don't know how to interpret the result.
C. You are measuring the wrong thing and thus reaching the wrong conclusions.
D. All of the above.
15. What do you mean by “Having to say NO” (test planning process)
a. No, the problem is not with testers
b. No, the software is not ready for production
c. Both a & b
d. none of the above
16. According to the lecture, there are several risks of managing your project's schedule
with a statistical reliability model. These include (choose one or more of the following):
A. Testers spend more energy early in the product trying to find bugs than preparing
to do the rest of the project's work more efficiently
B. Managers might not realize that the testing effort is ineffective, late in the project,
because they expect a low rate of bug finding, so the low rate achieved doesn't
alarm them.
C. It can increase the end-of-project pressure on testers to not find bugs, or to not
report bugs.
D. All of the above
17. Operations testing is (Performing Test)
a. compliance testing
b. disaster testing
c. verifying compliance to rules
d. functional testing
e. ease of operations
18. Tools like change Man, Clear case are used as (test planning process)
a. functional automation tools
b. performance testing tools
c. configuration management tools
d. none of the above.
19. Important consequences of the impossibility of complete testing are (Choose one or more answers):
A. We can never be certain that the program is bug free.
B. We have no definite stopping point for testing, which makes it easier for some
managers to argue for very little testing.
C. We have no easy answer for what testing tasks should always be required,
because every task takes time that could be spent on other high importance tasks.
D. All of the above.
20. Which is not in sequence in 11 Step Software Testing process (Tester’s
Role SDLC)
a Assess development plan and status
b Develop the test plan
c Test software design
d Test software requirement
21. In the MASPAR case study:
A. Security failures were the result of untested parts of code.
B. The development team achieved complete statement and branch coverage but
missed a serious bug in the MASPAR operating system.
C. An error in the code was so obscure that you had to test the function with almost
every input value to find its two special-case failures.
D. All of the above.
22. Complete statement and branch coverage means:
A. That you have tested every statement in the program.
B. That you have tested every statement and every branch in the program.
C. That you have tested every IF statement in the program.
D. That you have tested every combination of values of IF statements in the program
23. What if the project isn't big enough to justify extensive testing? (Test Mgmt)
a) Use risk based analysis to find out which areas need to be tested
b) Use automation tool for testing
c) a and b
d) None of the above
24. Security falls under (Performing Test)
a. compliance testing
b. disaster testing
c. verifying compliance to rules
d. functional testing
e. ease of operations
25. Which is the best definition of complete testing:
A. You have discovered every bug in the program.
B. You have tested every statement, branch, and combination of branches in the
program.
C. You have completed every test in the test plan.
D. You have reached the scheduled ship date.
26. What is the concept of introducing a small change to the program and having the
effects of that change show up in some test? (Testing concepts)
a) Desk checking
b) Debugging a program
c) A mutation error
d) Performance testing
e) Introducing mutations
Posted by Shailaja Kiran at 03:49 8 comments
Labels: ISTQB/ISEB, Sample Papers
Wednesday, 7 November 2007
ISTQB TEST 7
ISTQB Foundation Level Mock Test 2
Duration: 1 hour
Instructions:
1. Pass criteria will be 60%
2. No negative marking
1. COTS is known as
A. Commercial off the shelf software
B. Compliance of the software
C. Change control of the software
D. Capable off the shelf software
2. From the below given choices, which one is the ‘Confidence testing’
A. Sanity testing
B. System testing
C. Smoke testing
D. Regression testing
3. ‘Defect Density’ calculated in terms of
A. The number of defects identified in a component or system divided by the size of the component or the system
B. The number of defects found by a test phase divided by the number found by that test phase and any other means after wards
C. The number of defects identified in the component or system divided by the number of defects found by a test phase
D. The number of defects found by a test phase divided by the number found by the size of the system
4. ‘Be bugging’ is known as
A. Preventing the defects by inspection
B. Fixing the defects by debugging
C. Adding known defects by seeding
D. A process of fixing the defects by tester
5. An expert based test estimation is also known as
A. Narrow band Delphi
B. Wide band Delphi
C. Bespoke Delphi
D. Robust Delphi
6. When testing a grade calculation system, a tester determines that all scores from 90 to 100 will yield a grade of A, but scores below 90 will not. This analysis is known as:
A. Equivalence partitioning
B. Boundary value analysis
C. Decision table
D. Hybrid analysis
7. All of the following might be done during unit testing except
A. Desk check
B. Manual support testing
C. Walkthrough
D. Compiler based testing
9. Which of the following characteristics is primarily associated with software reusability?
A. The extent to which the software can be used in other applications
B. The extent to which the software can be used by many different users
C. The capability of the software to be moved to a different platform
D. The capability of one system to be coupled with another system
10. Which of the following software change management activities is most vital to assessing the impact of proposed software modifications?
A. Baseline identification B. Configuration auditing
C. Change control D. Version control
11. Which of the following statements is true about a software verification and validation program?
I. It strives to ensure that quality is built into software.
II. It provides management with insights into the state of a software project.
III. It ensures that alpha, beta, and system tests are performed.
IV. It is executed in parallel with software development activities.
A. I, II&III B.II, III&IV C.I, II&IV D.I, III&IV
12. Which of the following is a requirement of an effective software environment?
I. Ease of use
II. Capacity for incremental implementation
III. Capability of evolving with the needs of a project
IV. Inclusion of advanced tools
A.I, II &III B.I, II &IV C.II, III&IV D.I, III&IV
13. A test manager wants to use the resources available for the automated testing of a web application. The best choice is
A. Test automater, web specialist, DBA, test lead
B. Tester, test automater, web specialist, DBA
C. Tester, test lead, test automater, DBA
D. Tester, web specialist, test lead, test automater
14. A project manager has been transferred to a major software development project that is in the implementation phase. The highest priority for this project manager should be to
B. Establish a relationship with the customer
C. Learn the project objectives and the existing project plan
D. Modify the project’ s organizational structure to meet the manager’ s management style
E. Ensure that the project proceeds at its current pace
15. Change X requires a higher level of authority than Change Y in which of the following pairs?
Change X Change Y
A. Code in development Code in production
B. Specifications during requirements analysis Specifications during systems test
C. Documents requested by the technical development group Documents requested by customers
D. A product distributed to several sites A product with a single user
16. Which of the following functions is typically supported by a software quality information system?
I. Record keeping
II. System design
III. Evaluation scheduling
IV. Error reporting
A.I, II&III B.II, III &IV C.I, III &IV D.I, II & IV
17. During the testing of a module tester ‘X’ finds a bug and assigned it to developer. But developer rejects the same, saying that it’s not a bug. What ‘X’ should do?
A. Report the issue to the test manager and try to settle with the developer.
B. Retest the module and confirm the bug
C. Assign the same bug to another developer
D. Send to the detailed information of the bug encountered and check the reproducibility
18. The primary goal of comparing a user manual with the actual behavior of the running program during system testing is to
A. Find bugs in the program
B. Check the technical accuracy of the document
C. Ensure the ease of use of the document
D. Ensure that the program is the latest version
19. A type of integration testing in which software elements, hardware elements, or both are combined all at once into a component or an overall system, rather than in stages.
A. System Testing B. Big-Bang Testing
C. Integration Testing D. Unit Testing
20. In practice, which Life Cycle model may have more, fewer or different levels of development and testing, depending on the project and the software product. For example, there may be component integration testing after component testing, and system integration testing after system testing.
A. Water Fall Model B.V-Model
C. Spiral Model D. RAD Model
21. Which technique can be used to achieve input and output coverage? It can be applied to human input, input via interfaces to a system, or interface parameters in integration testing.
A. Error Guessing B. Boundary Value Analysis
C. Decision Table testing D. Equivalence partitioning
22. There is one application, which runs on a single terminal. There is another application that works on multiple terminals. What are the test techniques you will use on the second application that you would not do on the first application?
A. Integrity, Response time B. Concurrency test, Scalability
C. Update & Rollback, Response time D. Concurrency test, Integrity
23. You are the test manager and you are about the start the system testing. The developer team says that due to change in requirements they will be able to deliver the system to you for testing 5 working days after the due date. You can not change the resources(work hours, test tools, etc.) What steps you will take to be able to finish the testing in time. (
A. Tell to the development team to deliver the system in time so that testing activity will be finish in time.
B. Extend the testing plan, so that you can accommodate the slip going to occur
C. Rank the functionality as per risk and concentrate more on critical functionality testing
D. Add more resources so that the slippage should be avoided
24. Item transmittal report is also known as
A. Incident report B. Release note
C. Review report D. Audit report
25. Testing of software used to convert data from existing systems for use in replacement systems
A. Data driven testing B. Migration testing
C. Configuration testing D. Back to back testing
26. Big bang approach is related to
A. Regression testing B. Inter system testing
C. Re-testing D. Integration testing
27. Cause effect graphing is related to the standard
A. BS7799 B. BS 7925/2 C. ISO/IEC 926/1 D. ISO/IEC 2382/1
28. “The tracing of requirements for a test level through the layers of a test documentation” done by
A. Horizontal tracebility B. Depth tracebility
C. Vertical tracebility D. Horizontal & Vertical tracebilities
29. A test harness is a
A. A high level document describing the principles, approach and major objectives of the organization regarding testing
B. A distance set of test activities collected into a manageable phase of a project
C. A test environment comprised of stubs and drives needed to conduct a test
D. A set of several test cases for a component or system under test
30. You are a tester for testing a large system. The system data model is very large with many attributes and there are a lot of inter dependencies with in the fields. What steps would you use to test the system and also what are the efforts of the test you have taken on the test plan
A. Improve super vision, More reviews of artifacts or program means stage containment of the defects.
B. Extend the test plan so that you can test all the inter dependencies
C. Divide the large system in to small modules and test the functionality
D. Test the interdependencies first, after that check the system as a whole
31. Change request should be submitted through development or program management. A change request must be written and should include the following criteria.
I. Definition of the change
II. Documentation to be updated
III. Name of the tester or developer
IV. Dependencies of the change request.
A. I, III and IV B. I, II and III C. II, III and IV D. I, II and IV
32. ‘Entry criteria’ should address questions such as
I. Are the necessary documentation, design and requirements information available that will allow testers to operate the system and judge correct behavior.
II. Is the test environment-lab, hardware, software and system administration support ready?
III. Those conditions and situations that must prevail in the testing process to allow testing to continue effectively and efficiently.
IV. Are the supporting utilities, accessories and prerequisites available in forms that testers can use
A. I, II and IV B. I, II and III C. I, II, III and IV D. II, III and IV.
33. “This life cycle model is basically driven by schedule and budget risks” This statement is best suited for
A. Water fall model B. Spiral model
C. Incremental model D. V-Model
34. The bug tracking system will need to capture these phases for each bug.
I. Phase injected
II. Phase detected
III. Phase fixed
IV. Phase removed
A. I, II and III B. I, II and IV C. II, III and IV D. I, III and IV
35. One of the more daunting challenges of managing a test project is that so many dependencies converge at test execution. One missing configuration file or hard ware device can render all your test results meaning less. You can end up with an entire platoon of testers sitting around for days.
Who is responsible for this incident?
A. Test managers faults only
B. Test lead faults only
C. Test manager and project manager faults
D. Testers faults only
36. System test can begin when?
I. The test team competes a three day smoke test and reports on the results to the system test phase entry meeting
II. The development team provides software to the test team 3 business days prior to starting of the system testing
III. All components are under formal, automated configuration and release management control
A. I and II only B. II and III only C. I and III only D. I, II and III
37. Test charters are used in ________ testing
A. Exploratory testing B. Usability testing
C. Component testing D. Maintainability testing
All The Best
ISTQB Foundation Level Mock Test 2 Key
Q.No Answer Q.No Answer
1 (A) 20 (B)
2 (C) 21 (D)
3 (A) 22 (C)
4 (C) 23 (C)
5 (B) 24 (B)
6 (A) 25 (B)
7 (B) 26 (D)
8 (B) 27 (B)
9 (A) 28 (A)
10 (C) 29 (C)
11 (C) 30 (A)
12 (A) 31 (D)
13 (B) 32 (A)
14 (B) 33 (D)
15 (D) 34 (B)
16 (C) 35 (A)
17 (D) 36 (D)
18 (B) 37 (A)
19 (B)
Posted by Shailaja Kiran at 09:55 7 comments
Labels: ISTQB/ISEB, Sample Papers, Testing
ISTQB TEST 6
ISTQB Foundation Level Mock Test 1
Duration: 1 hour
Instructions:
1. Pass criteria will be 60% ,
2. No negative marking
1. ___________ Testing will be performed by the people at client own locations (1M)
A. Alpha testing B. Field testing C. Performance testing D. System testing
2. System testing should investigate (2M)
A. Non-functional requirements only not Functional requirements
B. Functional requirements only not non-functional requirements
C. Non-functional requirements and Functional requirements
D. Non-functional requirements or Functional requirements
3. Which is the non-functional testing (1M)
A. Performance testing B. Unit testing
C. Regression testing D. Sanity testing
4. Who is responsible for document all the issues, problems and open point that were identified during the review meeting (2M)
A. Moderator B. Scribe C. Reviewers D. Author
5. What is the main purpose of Informal review (2M)
A. Inexpensive way to get some benefit
B. Find defects
C. Learning, gaining understanding, effect finding
D. Discuss, make decisions, solve technical problems
6. Purpose of test design technique is (1M)
A. Identifying test conditions only, not Identifying test cases
B. Not Identifying test conditions, Identifying test cases only
C. Identifying test conditions and Identifying test cases
D. Identifying test conditions or Identifying test cases
7. ___________ technique can be used to achieve input and output coverage (1M)
A. Boundary value analysis B. Equivalence partitioning
C. Decision table testing D. State transition testing
8. Use cases can be performed to test (2M)
A. Performance testing B. Unit testing
C. Business scenarios D. Static testing
9. ________________ testing is performed at the developing organization’s site (1M)
A. Unit testing B. Regression testing
C. Alpha testing D. Integration testing
10. The purpose of exit criteria is (2M)
A. Define when to stop testing
B. End of test level
C. When a set of tests has achieved a specific pre condition
D. All of the above
11. Which is not the project risks (2M)
A. Supplier issues B. Organization factors
C. Technical issues D. Error-prone software delivered
12. Poor software characteristics are (3M)
A. Only Project risks
B. Only Product risks
C. Project risks and Product risks
D. Project risks or Product risks
13. ________ and ________ are used within individual workbenches to produce the right output products. (2M)
A. Tools and techniques B. Procedures and standards
C. Processes and walkthroughs D. Reviews and update
14. The software engineer's role in tool selection is (3M)
A. To identify, evaluate, and rank tools, and recommend tools to management
B. To determine what kind of tool is needed, then find it and buy it
C. To initiate the tool search and present a case to management
D. To identify, evaluate and select the tools
15. A _____ is the step-by-step method followed to ensure that standards are met (2M)
A. SDLC B. Project Plan C. Policy D. Procedure
16. Which of the following is the standard for the Software product quality (1M)
A. ISO 1926 B. ISO 829 C. ISO 1012 D. ISO 1028
17. Which is not the testing objectives (1M)
A. Finding defects
B. Gaining confidence about the level of quality and providing information
C. Preventing defects.
D. Debugging defects
18. Bug life cycle (1M)
A. Open, Assigned, Fixed, Closed
B. Open, Fixed, Assigned, Closed
C. Assigned, Open, Closed, Fixed
D. Assigned, Open, Fixed, Closed
19. Which is not the software characteristics (1M)
A. Reliability B. Usability C. Scalability D. Maintainability
20. Which is not a testing principle (2M)
A. Early testing B. Defect clustering
C. Pesticide paradox D. Exhaustive testing
21. ‘X’ has given a data on a person age, which should be between 1 to 99. Using BVA which is the appropriate one (3M)
A. 0,1,2,99 B. 1, 99, 100, 98 C. 0, 1, 99, 100 D. –1, 0, 1, 99
22. Which is not the fundamental test process (1M)
A. Planning and control B. Test closure activities
C. Analysis and design D. None
23. Which is not a Component testing (2M)
A. Check the memory leaks B. Check the robustness
C. Check the branch coverage D. Check the decision tables
24. PDCA is known as (1M)
A. Plan, Do, Check, Act B. Plan, Do, Correct, Act
C. Plan, Debug, Check, Act D. Plan, Do, Check, Accept
25. Contract and regulation testing is a part of (2M)
A. System testing B. Acceptance testing
C. Integration testing D. Smoke testing
26. Which is not a black box testing technique (1M)
A. Equivalence partition B. Decision tables
C. Transaction diagrams D. Decision testing
27. Arc testing is known as (2M)
A. Branch testing B. Agile testing
C. Beta testing D. Ad-hoc testing
28. A software model that can’t be used in functional testing (2M)
A. Process flow model B. State transaction model
C. Menu structure model D. Plain language specification model
29. Find the mismatch (2M)
A. Test data preparation tools – Manipulate Data bases
B. Test design tools – Generate test inputs
C. Requirement management tools – Enables individual tests to be traceable
D. Configuration management tools – Check for consistence
30. The principle of Cyclomatic complexity, considering L as edges or links, N as nodes, P as independent paths (2M)
A. L-N +2P
B. N-L +2P
C. N-L +P
D. N-L +P
31. FPA is used to (2M)
A. To measure the functional requirements of the project
B. To measure the size of the functionality of an Information system
C. To measure the functional testing effort
D. To measure the functional flow
32. Which is not a test Oracle (2M)
A. The existing system (For a bench mark)
B. The code
C. Individual’s knowledge
D. User manual
33. Find the correct flow of the phases of a formal review (3M)
A. Planning, Review meeting, Rework, Kick off
B. Planning, Individual preparation, Kick off, Rework
C. Planning, Review meeting, Rework, Follow up
D. Planning, Individual preparation, Follow up, Kick off
34. Stochastic testing using statistical information or operational profiles uses the following method (3M)
A. Heuristic testing approach
B. Methodical testing approach
C. Model based testing approach
D. Process or standard compliant testing approach
35. A project that is in the implementation phase is six weeks behind schedule. The delivery date for the product is four months away. The project is not allowed to slip the delivery date or compromise on the quality standards established for this product. Which of the following actions would bring this project back on schedule? (3M)
A. Eliminate some of the requirements that have not yet been implemented.
B. Add more engineers to the project to make up for lost work.
C. Ask the current developers to work overtime until the lost work is recovered.
D. Hire more software quality assurance personnel.
36. One person has been dominating the current software process improvement meeting. Which of the following techniques should the facilitator use to bring other team members into the discussion? (3M)
A. Confront the person and ask that other team members be allowed to express their opinions.
B. Wait for the person to pause, acknowledge the person’ s opinion, and ask for someone else’ s opinion.
C. Switch the topic to an issue about which the person does not have a strong opinion.
D. Express an opinion that differs from the person’ s opinion in order to encourage others to express their ideas.
37. Maintenance releases and technical assistance centers are examples of which of the following costs of quality? (3M)
A. External failure
B. Internal failure
C. Appraisal
D. Prevention
All the best
ISTQB Foundation Level Mock Test 1 Key
Q.No Answer Q.No Answer
1 B 20 D
2 C 21 C
3 A 22 D
4 B 23 D
5 A 24 A
6 C 25 B
7 B 26 D
8 C 27 A
9 C 28 C
10 D 29 D
11 D 30 A
12 B 31 B
13 B 32 B
14 A 33 C
15 D 34 C
16 A 35 A
17 D 36 B
18 A 37 A
19 C
Posted by Shailaja Kiran at 09:53 5 comments
Labels: Sample Papers, Testing
ISTQB TEST 5
Foundation Certificate In Software Testing Practice Exam
Time allowed: 1 hour
40 QUESTIONS
Question
NOTE: Only one answer per question
1 We split testing into distinct stages primarily because:
a) Each test stage has a different purpose.
b) It is easier to manage testing in stages.
c) We can run different tests in different environments.
d) The more stages we have, the better the testing.
2 Which of the following is likely to benefit most from the use of test tools providing test capture and replay facilities?
a) Regression testing
b) Integration testing
c) System testing
d) User acceptance testing
3 Which of the following statements is NOT correct?
a) A minimal test set that achieves 100% LCSAJ coverage will also achieve 100% branch coverage.
b) A minimal test set that achieves 100% path coverage will also achieve 100% statement coverage.
c) A minimal test set that achieves 100% path coverage will generally detect more faults than one that achieves 100% statement coverage.
d) A minimal test set that achieves 100% statement coverage will generally detect more faults than one that achieves 100% branch coverage.
4 Which of the following requirements is testable?
a) The system shall be user friendly.
b) The safety-critical parts of the system shall contain 0 faults.
c) The response time shall be less than one second for the specified design load.
d) The system shall be built to be portable.
5 Analyse the following highly simplified procedure:
Ask: “What type of ticket do you require, single or return?”
IF the customer wants ‘return’
Ask: “What rate, Standard or Cheap-day?”
IF the customer replies ‘Cheap-day’
Say: “That will be £11:20”
ELSE
Say: “That will be £19:50”
ENDIF
ELSE
Say: “That will be £9:75”
ENDIF
Now decide the minimum number of tests that are needed to ensure that all
the questions have been asked, all combinations have occurred and all
replies given.
a) 3
b) 4
c) 5d) 6
6 Error guessing:
a) supplements formal test design techniques.
b) can only be used in component, integration and system testing.
c) is only performed in user acceptance testing.
d) is not repeatable and should not be used.
7 Which of the following is NOT true of test coverage criteria?
a) Test coverage criteria can be measured in terms of items exercised by a test suite.
b) A measure of test coverage criteria is the percentage of user requirements covered.
c) A measure of test coverage criteria is the percentage of faults found.
d) Test coverage criteria are often used when specifying test completion criteria.
8 In prioritising what to test, the most important objective is to:
a) find as many faults as possible.
b) test high risk areas.
c) obtain good test coverage.
d) test whatever is easiest to test.
9 Given the following sets of test management terms (v-z), and activity descriptions (1-5), which one of the following best pairs the two sets?
v – test control
w – test monitoring
x - test estimation
y - incident management
z - configuration control
1 - calculation of required test resources
2 - maintenance of record of test results
3 - re-allocation of resources when tests overrun
4 - report on deviation from test plan
5 - tracking of anomalous test results
a) v-3,w-2,x-1,y-5,z-4
b) v-2,w-5,x-1,y-4,z-3
c) v-3,w-4,x-1,y-5,z-2
d) v-2,w-1,x-4,y-3,z-5
10 Which one of the following statements about system testing is NOT true?
a) System tests are often performed by independent teams.
b) Functional testing is used more than structural testing.
c) Faults found during system tests can be very expensive to fix.
d) End-users should be involved in system tests.
11 Which of the following is false?
a) Incidents should always be fixed.
b) An incident occurs when expected and actual results differ.
c) Incidents can be analysed to assist in test process improvement.
d) An incident can be raised against documentation.
12 Enough testing has been performed when:
a) time runs out.
b) the required level of confidence has been achieved.
c) no more faults are found.
d) the users won’t find any serious faults.
13 Which of the following is NOT true of incidents?
a) Incident resolution is the responsibility of the author of the software under test.
b) Incidents may be raised against user requirements.
c) Incidents require investigation and/or correction.
d) Incidents are raised when expected and actual results differ.
14 Which of the following is not described in a unit test standard?
a) syntax testing
b) equivalence partitioning
c) stress testing
d) modified condition/decision coverage
15 Which of the following is false?
a) In a system two different failures may have different severities.
b) A system is necessarily more reliable after debugging for the removal of a fault.
c) A fault need not affect the reliability of a system.
d) Undetected errors may lead to faults and eventually to incorrect behaviour.
16 Which one of the following statements, about capture-replay tools, is NOT correct?
a) They are used to support multi-user testing.
b) They are used to capture and animate user requirements.
c) They are the most frequently purchased types of CAST tool.
d) They capture aspects of user behaviour.
17 How would you estimate the amount of re-testing likely to be required?
a) Metrics from previous similar projects
b) Discussions with the development team
c) Time allocated for regression testing
d) a & b
18 Which of the following is true of the V-model?
a) It states that modules are tested against user requirements.
b) It only models the testing phase.
c) It specifies the test techniques to be used.
d) It includes the verification of designs.
19 The oracle assumption:
a) is that there is some existing system against which test output may be checked.
b) is that the tester can routinely identify the correct outcome of a test.
c) is that the tester knows everything about the software under test.
d) is that the tests are reviewed by experienced testers.
20 Which of the following characterises the cost of faults?
a) They are cheapest to find in the early development phases and the most expensive to fix in the latest test phases.
b) They are easiest to find during system testing but the most expensive to fix then.
c) Faults are cheapest to find in the early development phases but the most expensive to fix then.
d) Although faults are most expensive to find during early development phases, they are cheapest to fix then.
21 Which of the following should NOT normally be an objective for a test?
a) To find faults in the software.
b) To assess whether the software is ready for release.
c) To demonstrate that the software doesn’t work.
d) To prove that the software is correct.
22 Which of the following is a form of functional testing?
a) Boundary value analysis
b) Usability testing
c) Performance testing
d) Security testing
23 Which of the following would NOT normally form part of a test plan?
a) Features to be tested
b) Incident reports
c) Risks
d) Schedule
24 Which of these activities provides the biggest potential cost saving from the use of CAST?
a) Test management
b) Test design
c) Test execution
d) Test planning
25 Which of the following is NOT a white box technique?
a) Statement testing
b) Path testing
c) Data flow testing
d) State transition testing
26 Data flow analysis studies:
a) possible communications bottlenecks in a program.
b) the rate of change of data values as a program executes.
c) the use of data on paths through the code.
d) the intrinsic complexity of the code.
27 In a system designed to work out the tax to be paid:
An employee has £4000 of salary tax free. The next £1500 is taxed at 10%
The next £28000 is taxed at 22%
Any further amount is taxed at 40%
To the nearest whole pound, which of these is a valid Boundary Value Analysis test case?
a) £1500
b) £32001
c) £33501
d) £28000
28 An important benefit of code inspections is that they:
a) enable the code to be tested before the execution environment is ready.
b) can be performed by the person who wrote the code.
c) can be performed by inexperienced staff.
d) are cheap to perform.
29 Which of the following is the best source of Expected Outcomes for User Acceptance Test scripts?
a) Actual results
b) Program specification
c) User requirements
d) System specification
30 What is the main difference between a walkthrough and an inspection?
a) An inspection is lead by the author, whilst a walkthrough is lead by a trained moderator.
b) An inspection has a trained leader, whilst a walkthrough has no leader.
c) Authors are not present during inspections, whilst they are during walkthroughs.
d) A walkthrough is lead by the author, whilst an inspection is lead by a trained moderator.
31 Which one of the following describes the major benefit of verification early in the life cycle?
a) It allows the identification of changes in user requirements.
b) It facilitates timely set up of the test environment.
c) It reduces defect multiplication.
d) It allows testers to become involved early in the project.
32 Integration testing in the small:
a) tests the individual components that have been developed.
b) tests interactions between modules or subsystems.
c) only uses components that form part of the live system.
d) tests interfaces to other systems.
33 Static analysis is best described as:
a) the analysis of batch programs.
b) the reviewing of test plans.
c) the analysis of program code.
d) the use of black box testing.
34 Alpha testing is:
a) post-release testing by end user representatives at the developer’s site.
b) the first testing that is performed.
c) pre-release testing by end user representatives at the developer’s site.
d) pre-release testing by end user representatives at their sites.
35 A failure is:
a) found in the software; the result of an error.
b) departure from specified behaviour.
c) an incorrect step, process or data definition in a computer program.
d) a human action that produces an incorrect result.
36 In a system designed to work out the tax to be paid:
An employee has £4000 of salary tax free. The next £1500 is taxed at 10%
The next £28000 is taxed at 22%
Any further amount is taxed at 40%
Which of these groups of numbers would fall into the same equivalence class?
a) £4800; £14000; £28000
b) £5200; £5500; £28000
c) £28001; £32000; £35000
d) £5800; £28000; £32000
37 The most important thing about early test design is that it:
a) makes test preparation easier.
b) means inspections are not required.
c) can prevent fault multiplication.
d) will find all faults.
38 Which of the following statements about reviews is true?
a) Reviews cannot be performed on user requirements specifications.
b) Reviews are the least effective way of testing code.
c) Reviews are unlikely to find faults in test plans.
d) Reviews should be performed on specifications, code, and test plans.
39 Test cases are designed during:
a) test recording.
b) test planning.
c) test configuration.
d) test specification.
40 A configuration management system would NOT normally provide:
a) linkage of customer requirements to version numbers.
b) facilities to compare test results with expected results.
c) the precise differences in versions of software component source code.
d) restricted access to the source code library.
Question number Correct answer
1 A
2 A
3 D
4 C
5 A
6 A
7 C
8 B
9 C
10 D
11 A
12 B
13 A
14 C
15 B
16 B
17 D
18 D
19 B
20 A
21 D
22 A
23 B
24 C
25 D
26 C
27 C
28 A
29 C
30 D
31 C
32 B
33 C
34 C
35 B
36 D
37 C
38 D
39 D
40 B
Posted by Shailaja Kiran at 09:49 6 comments
Labels: Sample Papers, Testing
Monday, 29 October 2007
About ISTQB examination
I saw people asking lots of questions regarding testing examination.
ISTQB is the foundation level exam
CSTE is the advanced exam
Exam contains 40 question and should be completed in 1 hour.
Very tricky questions are asked.
Please click here. You will find old and new syllabus of the examination along with the Standard Glossary. Also you can book your exam.
Check out the dates available in India click here.
Click the link below to take a sample Mock test along with some information click here.
ISTQB syllabus and glossary.
Click here to download the latest copies.
The changes made in the syllabus include numbering the learning objectives, rephrasing certain terms, and removing repetitive terms. The following new terms were introduced: fault attack, incident management, retesting, error guessing, independence, iterative-incremental development model, static testing, and static technique. ISTQB also removed the following terms: software, testing, development (of software), test basis, independent testing, contractual acceptance testing, retirement, modification, migration, kick-off, review meeting, and review process.
Source: Click here
In the glossary, the following terms were added: action word driven testing, bug tracking tool, coverage measurement tools, modelling tool, monkey testing, scripted testing, specification-based technique, stress testing tool, structure-based technique, unit test framework, and white box technique. If you are preparing for the exam, keep an eye on the following changed terms: basic block, control flow graph, defect management tool, independence of testing, project risk, risk-based testing, test comparator, and test process.
Source: Glossary
Posted by Shailaja Kiran at 11:33 2 comments
Labels: ISTQB/ISEB, Sample Papers, Testing
Sunday, 16 September 2007
ISTQB Sample Paper # 4
1. An input field takes the year of birth between 1900 and 2004
The boundary values for testing this field are
a. 0,1900,2004,2005
b. 1900, 2004
c. 1899,1900,2004,2005
d. 1899, 1900, 1901,2003,2004,2005
2. Which one of the following are non-functional testing methods?
a. System testing
b. Usability testing
c. Performance testing
d. Both b & c
3. Which of the following tools would be involved in the automation of regression test?
a. Data tester
b. Boundary tester
c. Capture/Playback
d. Output comparator.
4. Incorrect form of Logic coverage is:
a. Statement Coverage
b. Pole Coverage
c. Condition Coverage
d. Path Coverage
5. Which of the following is not a quality characteristic listed in ISO 9126 Standard?
a. Functionality
b. Usability
c. Supportability
d. Maintainability
6. To test a function, the programmer has to write a _________, which calls the function to be tested and passes it test data.
a. Stub
b. Driver
c. Proxy
d. None of the above
7. Boundary value testing
a. Is the same as equivalence partitioning tests
b. Test boundary conditions on, below and above the edges of input and output equivalence classes
c. Tests combinations of input circumstances
d. Is used in white box testing strategy
8. Pick the best definition of quality
a. Quality is job one
b. Zero defects
c. Conformance to requirements
d. Work as designed
9. Fault Masking is
a. Error condition hiding another error condition
b. Creating a test case which does not reveal a fault
c. Masking a fault by developer
d. Masking a fault by a tester
10. One Key reason why developers have difficulty testing their own work is :
a. Lack of technical documentation
b. Lack of test tools on the market for developers
c. Lack of training
d. Lack of Objectivity
11. During the software development process, at what point can the test process start?
a. When the code is complete.
b. When the design is complete.
c. When the software requirements have been approved.
d. When the first code module is ready for unit testing
12. In a review meeting a moderator is a person who
a. Takes minutes of the meeting
b. Mediates between people
c. Takes telephone calls
d. Writes the documents to be reviewed
13. Given the Following program
IF X < Y
THEN Statement 1;
ELSE IF Y >= Z
THEN Statement 2;
END
McCabe’s Cyclomatic Complexity is :
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
14. How many test cases are necessary to cover all the possible sequences of statements (paths) for the following program fragment? Assume that the two conditions are independent of each other : -
…………
if (Condition 1)
then statement 1
else statement 2
fi
if (Condition 2)
then statement 3
fi
…………
a. 2 Test Cases
b. 3 Test Cases
c. 4 Test Cases
d. Not achievable
15. Acceptance test cases are based on what?
a. Requirements
b. Design
c. Code
d. Decision table
16. “How much testing is enough?”
a. This question is impossible to answer
b. This question is easy to answer
c. The answer depends on the risk for your industry, contract and special requirements
d. This answer depends on the maturity of your developers
17. A common test technique during component test is
a. Statement and branch testing
b. Usability testing
c. Security testing
d. Performance testing
18. Statement Coverage will not check for the following.
a. Missing Statements
b. Unused Branches
c. Dead Code
d. Unused Statement
19. Independent Verification & Validation is
a. Done by the Developer
b. Done by the Test Engineers
c. Done By Management
d. Done by an Entity Outside the Project’s sphere of influence
20. Code Coverage is used as a measure of what ?
a. Defects
b. Trends analysis
c. Test Effectiveness
d. Time Spent Testing
Answers
1 c
2 d
3 c
4 b
5 c
6 b
7 b
8 c
9 a
10 d
11 c
12 b
13 b
14 a
15 a
16 c
17 a
18 a
19 d
20 c
Posted by Shailaja Kiran at 01:57 2 comments
Labels: ISTQB/ISEB, Sample Papers, Testing
ISTQB Sample Paper # 3
1 We split testing into distinct stages primarily because:
a) Each test stage has a different purpose.
b) It is easier to manage testing in stages.
c) We can run different tests in different environments.
d) The more stages we have, the better the testing.
2 Which of the following is likely to benefit most from the use of test tools providing test capture and replay facilities?
a) Regression testing
b) Integration testing
c) System testing
d) User acceptance testing
3 Which of the following statements is NOT correct?
a) A minimal test set that achieves 100% LCSAJ coverage will also achieve 100% branch coverage.
b) A minimal test set that achieves 100% path coverage will also achieve 100% statement coverage.
c) A minimal test set that achieves 100% path coverage will generally detect more faults than one that achieves 100% statement coverage.
d) A minimal test set that achieves 100% statement coverage will generally detect more faults than one that achieves 100% branch coverage.
4 Which of the following requirements is testable?
a) The system shall be user friendly.
b) The safety-critical parts of the system shall contain 0 faults.
c) The response time shall be less than one second for the specified design load.
d) The system shall be built to be portable.
5 Analyse the following highly simplified procedure:
Ask: “What type of ticket do you require, single or return?”
IF the customer wants ‘return’
Ask: “What rate, Standard or Cheap-day?”
IF the customer replies ‘Cheap-day’
Say: “That will be £11:20”
ELSE
Say: “That will be £19:50”
ENDIF
ELSE
Say: “That will be £9:75”
ENDIF
Now decide the minimum number of tests that are needed to ensure that all
the questions have been asked, all combinations have occurred and all
replies given.
a) 3
b) 4
c) 5d) 6
6 Error guessing:
a) supplements formal test design techniques.
b) can only be used in component, integration and system testing.
c) is only performed in user acceptance testing.
d) is not repeatable and should not be used.
7 Which of the following is NOT true of test coverage criteria?
a) Test coverage criteria can be measured in terms of items exercised by a test suite.
b) A measure of test coverage criteria is the percentage of user requirements covered.
c) A measure of test coverage criteria is the percentage of faults found.
d) Test coverage criteria are often used when specifying test completion criteria.
8 In prioritising what to test, the most important objective is to:
a) find as many faults as possible.
b) test high risk areas.
c) obtain good test coverage.
d) test whatever is easiest to test.
9 Given the following sets of test management terms (v-z), and activity descriptions (1-5), which one of the following best pairs the two sets?
v – test control
w – test monitoring
x - test estimation
y - incident management
z - configuration control
1 - calculation of required test resources
2 - maintenance of record of test results
3 - re-allocation of resources when tests overrun
4 - report on deviation from test plan
5 - tracking of anomalous test results
a) v-3,w-2,x-1,y-5,z-4
b) v-2,w-5,x-1,y-4,z-3
c) v-3,w-4,x-1,y-5,z-2
d) v-2,w-1,x-4,y-3,z-5
10 Which one of the following statements about system testing is NOT true?
a) System tests are often performed by independent teams.
b) Functional testing is used more than structural testing.
c) Faults found during system tests can be very expensive to fix.
d) End-users should be involved in system tests.
11 Which of the following is false?
a) Incidents should always be fixed.
b) An incident occurs when expected and actual results differ.
c) Incidents can be analysed to assist in test process improvement.
d) An incident can be raised against documentation.
12 Enough testing has been performed when:
a) time runs out.
b) the required level of confidence has been achieved.
c) no more faults are found.
d) the users won’t find any serious faults.
13 Which of the following is NOT true of incidents?
a) Incident resolution is the responsibility of the author of the software under test.
b) Incidents may be raised against user requirements.
c) Incidents require investigation and/or correction.
d) Incidents are raised when expected and actual results differ.
14 Which of the following is not described in a unit test standard?
a) syntax testing
b) equivalence partitioning
c) stress testing
d) modified condition/decision coverage
15 Which of the following is false?
a) In a system two different failures may have different severities.
b) A system is necessarily more reliable after debugging for the removal of a fault.
c) A fault need not affect the reliability of a system.
d) Undetected errors may lead to faults and eventually to incorrect behaviour.
16 Which one of the following statements, about capture-replay tools, is NOT correct?
a) They are used to support multi-user testing.
b) They are used to capture and animate user requirements.
c) They are the most frequently purchased types of CAST tool.
d) They capture aspects of user behaviour.
17 How would you estimate the amount of re-testing likely to be required?
a) Metrics from previous similar projects
b) Discussions with the development team
c) Time allocated for regression testing
d) a & b
18 Which of the following is true of the V-model?
a) It states that modules are tested against user requirements.
b) It only models the testing phase.
c) It specifies the test techniques to be used.
d) It includes the verification of designs.
19 The oracle assumption:
a) is that there is some existing system against which test output may be checked.
b) is that the tester can routinely identify the correct outcome of a test.
c) is that the tester knows everything about the software under test.
d) is that the tests are reviewed by experienced testers.
20 Which of the following characterises the cost of faults?
a) They are cheapest to find in the early development phases and the most expensive to fix in the latest test phases.
b) They are easiest to find during system testing but the most expensive to fix then.
c) Faults are cheapest to find in the early development phases but the most expensive to fix then.
d) Although faults are most expensive to find during early development phases, they are cheapest to fix then.
21 Which of the following should NOT normally be an objective for a test?
a) To find faults in the software.
b) To assess whether the software is ready for release.
c) To demonstrate that the software doesn’t work.
d) To prove that the software is correct.
22 Which of the following is a form of functional testing?
a) Boundary value analysis
b) Usability testing
c) Performance testing
d) Security testing
23 Which of the following would NOT normally form part of a test plan?
a) Features to be tested
b) Incident reports
c) Risks
d) Schedule
24 Which of these activities provides the biggest potential cost saving from the use of CAST?
a) Test management
b) Test design
c) Test execution
d) Test planning
25 Which of the following is NOT a white box technique?
a) Statement testing
b) Path testing
c) Data flow testing
d) State transition testing
26 Data flow analysis studies:
a) possible communications bottlenecks in a program.
b) the rate of change of data values as a program executes.
c) the use of data on paths through the code.
d) the intrinsic complexity of the code.
27 In a system designed to work out the tax to be paid:
An employee has £4000 of salary tax free. The next £1500 is taxed at 10%
The next £28000 is taxed at 22%
Any further amount is taxed at 40%
To the nearest whole pound, which of these is a valid Boundary Value Analysis test case?
a) £1500
b) £32001
c) £33501
d) £28000
28 An important benefit of code inspections is that they:
a) enable the code to be tested before the execution environment is ready.
b) can be performed by the person who wrote the code.
c) can be performed by inexperienced staff.
d) are cheap to perform.
29 Which of the following is the best source of Expected Outcomes for User Acceptance Test scripts?
a) Actual results
b) Program specification
c) User requirements
d) System specification
30 What is the main difference between a walkthrough and an inspection?
a) An inspection is lead by the author, whilst a walkthrough is lead by a trained moderator.
b) An inspection has a trained leader, whilst a walkthrough has no leader.
c) Authors are not present during inspections, whilst they are during walkthroughs.
d) A walkthrough is lead by the author, whilst an inspection is lead by a trained moderator.
31 Which one of the following describes the major benefit of verification early in the life cycle?
a) It allows the identification of changes in user requirements.
b) It facilitates timely set up of the test environment.
c) It reduces defect multiplication.
d) It allows testers to become involved early in the project.
32 Integration testing in the small:
a) tests the individual components that have been developed.
b) tests interactions between modules or subsystems.
c) only uses components that form part of the live system.
d) tests interfaces to other systems.
33 Static analysis is best described as:
a) the analysis of batch programs.
b) the reviewing of test plans.
c) the analysis of program code.
d) the use of black box testing.
34 Alpha testing is:
a) post-release testing by end user representatives at the developer’s site.
b) the first testing that is performed.
c) pre-release testing by end user representatives at the developer’s site.
d) pre-release testing by end user representatives at their sites.
35 A failure is:
a) found in the software; the result of an error.
b) departure from specified behaviour.
c) an incorrect step, process or data definition in a computer program.
d) a human action that produces an incorrect result.
36 In a system designed to work out the tax to be paid:
An employee has £4000 of salary tax free. The next £1500 is taxed at 10%
The next £28000 is taxed at 22%
Any further amount is taxed at 40%
Which of these groups of numbers would fall into the same equivalence class?
a) £4800; £14000; £28000
b) £5200; £5500; £28000
c) £28001; £32000; £35000
d) £5800; £28000; £32000
37 The most important thing about early test design is that it:
a) makes test preparation easier.
b) means inspections are not required.
c) can prevent fault multiplication.
d) will find all faults.
38 Which of the following statements about reviews is true?
a) Reviews cannot be performed on user requirements specifications.
b) Reviews are the least effective way of testing code.
c) Reviews are unlikely to find faults in test plans.
d) Reviews should be performed on specifications, code, and test plans.
39 Test cases are designed during:
a) test recording.
b) test planning.
c) test configuration.
d) test specification.
40 A configuration management system would NOT normally provide:
a) linkage of customer requirements to version numbers.
b) facilities to compare test results with expected results.
c) the precise differences in versions of software component source code.
d) restricted access to the source code library.
1 A
2 A
3 D
4 C
5 A
6 A
7 C
8 B
9 C
10 D
11 A
12 B
13 A
14 C
15 B
16 B
17 D
18 D
19 B
20 A
21 D
22 A
23 B
24 C
25 D
26 C
27 C
28 A
29 C
30 D
31 C
32 B
33 C
34 C
35 B
36 D
37 C
38 D
39 D
40 B
Posted by Shailaja Kiran at 01:55 2 comments
Labels: ISTQB/ISEB, Sample Papers, Testing
ISTQB Sample Paper # 2
1.Software testing activities should start
a. as soon as the code is written
b. during the design stage
c. when the requirements have been formally documented
d. as soon as possible in the development life cycle
2.Faults found by users are due to:
a. Poor quality software
b. Poor software and poor testing
c. bad luck
d. insufficient time for testing
3.What is the main reason for testing software before releasing it?
a. to show that system will work after release
b. to decide when the software is of sufficient quality to release
c. to find as many bugs as possible before release
d. to give information for a risk based decision about release
4. which of the following statements is not true
a. performance testing can be done during unit testing as well as during the testing of whole system
b. The acceptance test does not necessarily include a regression test
c. Verification activities should not involve testers (reviews, inspections etc)
d. Test environments should be as similar to production environments as possible
5. When reporting faults found to developers, testers should be:
a. as polite, constructive and helpful as possible
b. firm about insisting that a bug is not a “feature” if it should be fixed
c. diplomatic, sensitive to the way they may react to criticism
d. All of the above
6.In which order should tests be run?
a. the most important tests first
b. the most difficult tests first(to allow maximum time for fixing)
c. the easiest tests first(to give initial confidence)
d. the order they are thought of
7. The later in the development life cycle a fault is discovered, the more expensive it is to fix. why?
a. the documentation is poor, so it takes longer to find out what the software is doing.
b. wages are rising
c. the fault has been built into more documentation,code,tests, etc
d. none of the above
8. Which is not true-The black box tester
a. should be able to understand a functional specification or requirements document
b. should be able to understand the source code.
c. is highly motivated to find faults
d. is creative to find the system’s weaknesses
9. A test design technique is
a. a process for selecting test cases
b. a process for determining expected outputs
c. a way to measure the quality of software
d. a way to measure in a test plan what has to be done
10. Testware(test cases, test dataset)
a. needs configuration management just like requirements, design and code
b. should be newly constructed for each new version of the software
c. is needed only until the software is released into production or use
d. does not need to be documented and commented, as it does not form part of the released
software system
11. An incident logging system
a only records defects
b is of limited value
c is a valuable source of project information during testing if it contains all incidents
d. should be used only by the test team.
12. Increasing the quality of the software, by better development methods, will affect the time needed for testing (the test phases) by:
a. reducing test time
b. no change
c. increasing test time
d. can’t say
13. Coverage measurement
a. is nothing to do with testing
b. is a partial measure of test thoroughness
c. branch coverage should be mandatory for all software
d. can only be applied at unit or module testing, not at system testing
14. When should you stop testing?
a. when time for testing has run out.
b. when all planned tests have been run
c. when the test completion criteria have been met
d. when no faults have been found by the tests run
15. Which of the following is true?
a. Component testing should be black box, system testing should be white box.
b. if u find a lot of bugs in testing, you should not be very confident about the quality of software
c. the fewer bugs you find,the better your testing was
d. the more tests you run, the more bugs you will find.
16. What is the important criterion in deciding what testing technique to use?
a. how well you know a particular technique
b. the objective of the test
c. how appropriate the technique is for testing the application
d. whether there is a tool to support the technique
17. If the pseudocode below were a programming language ,how many tests are required to achieve 100% statement coverage?
1. If x=3 then
2. Display_messageX;
3. If y=2 then
4. Display_messageY;
5. Else
6. Display_messageZ;
7. Else
8. Display_messageZ;
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
18. Using the same code example as question 17,how many tests are required to achieve 100% branch/decision coverage?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
19 Which of the following is NOT a type of non-functional test?
a. State-Transition
b. Usability
c. Performance
d. Security
20. Which of the following tools would you use to detect a memory leak?
a. State analysis
b. Coverage analysis
c. Dynamic analysis
d. Memory analysis
21. Which of the following is NOT a standard related to testing?
a. IEEE829
b. IEEE610
c. BS7925-1
d. BS7925-2
22.which of the following is the component test standard?
a. IEEE 829
b. IEEE 610
c. BS7925-1
d. BS7925-2
23 which of the following statements are true?
a. Faults in program specifications are the most expensive to fix.
b. Faults in code are the most expensive to fix.
c. Faults in requirements are the most expensive to fix
d. Faults in designs are the most expensive to fix.
24. Which of the following is not the integration strategy?
a. Design based
b. Big-bang
c. Bottom-up
d. Top-down
25. Which of the following is a black box design technique?
a. statement testing
b. equivalence partitioning
c. error- guessing
d. usability testing
26. A program with high cyclometic complexity is almost likely to be:
a. Large
b. Small
c. Difficult to write
d. Difficult to test
27. Which of the following is a static test?
a. code inspection
b. coverage analysis
c. usability assessment
d. installation test
28. Which of the following is the odd one out?
a. white box
b. glass box
c. structural
d. functional
29. A program validates a numeric field as follows:
values less than 10 are rejected, values between 10 and 21 are accepted, values greater than or equal to 22 are rejected
which of the following input values cover all of the equivalence partitions?
a. 10,11,21
b. 3,20,21
c. 3,10,22
d. 10,21,22
30. Using the same specifications as question 29, which of the following covers the MOST boundary values?
a. 9,10,11,22
b. 9,10,21,22
c. 10,11,21,22
d. 10,11,20,21
1.d
2.b
3.d
4.c
5.d
6.a
7.c
8.b
9.a
10.a
11.c
12.a
13.b
14.c
15.b
16.b
17.c
18.c
19.a
20.c
21.b
22.d
23.c
24.a
25.b
26.d
27.a
28.d
29.c
30.b
Posted by Shailaja Kiran at 01:53 13 comments
Labels: ISTQB/ISEB, Sample Papers, Testing
ISTQB Sample Paper # 1
1 When what is visible to end-users is a deviation from the specific or expected behavior, this is called:
a) an error
b) a fault
c) a failure
d) a defect
e) a mistake
2 Regression testing should be performed:
v) every week
w) after the software has changed
x) as often as possible
y) when the environment has changed
z) when the project manager says
a) v & w are true, x – z are false
b) w, x & y are true, v & z are false
c) w & y are true, v, x & z are false
d) w is true, v, x y and z are false
e) all of the above are true
3 IEEE 829 test plan documentation standard contains all of the following except:
a) test items
b) test deliverables
c) test tasks
d) test environment
e) test specification
4 Testing should be stopped when:
a) all the planned tests have been run
b) time has run out
c) all faults have been fixed correctly
d) both a) and c)
e) it depends on the risks for the system being tested
5 Order numbers on a stock control system can range between 10000 and 99999 inclusive. Which of the following inputs might be a result of designing tests for only valid equivalence classes and valid boundaries:
a) 1000, 5000, 99999
b) 9999, 50000, 100000
c) 10000, 50000, 99999
d) 10000, 99999
e) 9999, 10000, 50000, 99999, 10000
6 Consider the following statements about early test design:
i. early test design can prevent fault multiplication
ii. faults found during early test design are more expensive to fix
iii. early test design can find faults
iv. early test design can cause changes to the requirements
v. early test design takes more effort
a) i, iii & iv are true. Ii & v are false
b) iii is true, I, ii, iv & v are false
c) iii & iv are true. i, ii & v are false
d) i, iii, iv & v are true, ii us false
e) i & iii are true, ii, iv & v are false
7 Non-functional system testing includes:
a) testing to see where the system does not function properly
b) testing quality attributes of the system including performance and usability
c) testing a system feature using only the software required for that action
d) testing a system feature using only the software required for that function
e) testing for functions that should not exist
8 Which of the following is NOT part of configuration management:
a) status accounting of configuration items
b) auditing conformance to ISO9001
c) identification of test versions
d) record of changes to documentation over time
e) controlled library access
9 Which of the following is the main purpose of the integration strategy for integration testing in the small?
a) to ensure that all of the small modules are tested adequately
b) to ensure that the system interfaces to other systems and networks
c) to specify which modules to combine when and how many at once
d) to ensure that the integration testing can be performed by a small team
e) to specify how the software should be divided into modules
10 What is the purpose of test completion criteria in a test plan:
a) to know when a specific test has finished its execution
b) to ensure that the test case specification is complete
c) to set the criteria used in generating test inputs
d) to know when test planning is complete
e) to plan when to stop testing
11 Consider the following statements
i. an incident may be closed without being fixed
ii. incidents may not be raised against documentation
iii. the final stage of incident tracking is fixing
iv. the incident record does not include information on test environments
v. incidents should be raised when someone other than the author of the software performs the test
a) ii and v are true, I, iii and iv are false
b) i and v are true, ii, iii and iv are false
c) i, iv and v are true, ii and iii are false
d) i and ii are true, iii, iv and v are false
e) i is true, ii, iii, iv and v are false
12 Given the following code, which is true about the minimum number of test cases required for full statement and branch coverage:
Read P
Read Q
IF P+Q > 100 THEN
Print “Large”
ENDIF
If P > 50 THEN
Print “P Large”
ENDIF
a) 1 test for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage
b) 1 test for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
c) 1 test for statement coverage, 1 for branch coverage
d) 2 tests for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage
e) 2 tests for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
13 Given the following:
Switch PC on
Start “outlook”
IF outlook appears THEN
Send an email
Close outlook
a) 1 test for statement coverage, 1 for branch coverage
b) 1 test for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
c) 1 test for statement coverage. 3 for branch coverage
d) 2 tests for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
e) 2 tests for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage
14 Given the following code, which is true:
IF A > B THEN
C = A – B
ELSE
C = A + B
ENDIF
Read D
IF C = D Then
Print “Error”
ENDIF
a) 1 test for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage
b) 2 tests for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
c) 2 tests for statement coverage. 3 for branch coverage
d) 3 tests for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage
e) 3 tests for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
15 Consider the following:
Pick up and read the newspaper
Look at what is on television
If there is a program that you are interested in watching then switch the the television on and watch the program
Otherwise
Continue reading the newspaper
If there is a crossword in the newspaper then try and complete the crossword
a) SC = 1 and DC = 1
b) SC = 1 and DC = 2
c) SC = 1 and DC = 3
d) SC = 2 and DC = 2
e) SC = 2 and DC = 3
16 The place to start if you want a (new) test tool is:
a) Attend a tool exhibition
b) Invite a vendor to give a demo
c) Analyse your needs and requirements
d) Find out what your budget would be for the tool
e) Search the internet
17 When a new testing tool is purchased, it should be used first by:
a) A small team to establish the best way to use the tool
b) Everyone who may eventually have some use for the tool
c) The independent testing team
d) The managers to see what projects it should be used in
e) The vendor contractor to write the initial scripts
18 What can static analysis NOT find?
a) The use of a variable before it has been defined
b) Unreachable (“dead”) code
c) Whether the value stored in a variable is correct
d) The re-definition of a variable before it has been used
e) Array bound violations
19 Which of the following is NOT a black box technique:
a) Equivalence partitioning
b) State transition testing
c) LCSAJ
d) Syntax testing
e) Boundary value analysis
20 Beta testing is:
a) Performed by customers at their own site
b) Performed by customers at their software developer’s site
c) Performed by an independent test team
d) Useful to test bespoke software
e) Performed as early as possible in the lifecycle
21 Given the following types of tool, which tools would typically be used by developers and which by an independent test team:
i. static analysis
ii. performance testing
iii. test management
iv. dynamic analysis
v. test running
vi. test data preparation
a) developers would typically use i, iv and vi; test team ii, iii and v
b) developers would typically use i and iv; test team ii, iii, v and vi
c) developers would typically use i, ii, iii and iv; test team v and vi
d) developers would typically use ii, iv and vi; test team I, ii and v
e) developers would typically use i, iii, iv and v; test team ii and vi
22 The main focus of acceptance testing is:
a) finding faults in the system
b) ensuring that the system is acceptable to all users
c) testing the system with other systems
d) testing for a business perspective
e) testing by an independent test team
23 Which of the following statements about the component testing standard is false:
a) black box design techniques all have an associated measurement technique
b) white box design techniques all have an associated measurement technique
c) cyclomatic complexity is not a test measurement technique
d) black box measurement techniques all have an associated test design technique
e) white box measurement techniques all have an associated test design technique
24 Which of the following statements is NOT true:
a) inspection is the most formal review process
b) inspections should be led by a trained leader
c) managers can perform inspections on management documents
d) inspection is appropriate even when there are no written documents
e) inspection compares documents with predecessor (source) documents
25 A typical commercial test execution tool would be able to perform all of the following EXCEPT:
a) generating expected outputs
b) replaying inputs according to a programmed script
c) comparison of expected outcomes with actual outcomes
d) recording test inputs
e) reading test values from a data file
26 The difference between re-testing and regression testing is
a) re-testing is running a test again; regression testing looks for unexpected side effects
b) re-testing looks for unexpected side effects; regression testing is repeating those tests
c) re-testing is done after faults are fixed; regression testing is done earlier
d) re-testing uses different environments, regression testing uses the same environment
e) re-testing is done by developers, regression testing is done by independent testers
27 Expected results are:
a) only important in system testing
b) only used in component testing
c) never specified in advance
d) most useful when specified in advance
e) derived from the code
28 Test managers should not:
a) report on deviations from the project plan
b) sign the system off for release
c) re-allocate resource to meet original plans
d) raise incidents on faults that they have found
e) provide information for risk analysis and quality improvement
29 Unreachable code would best be found using:
a) code reviews
b) code inspections
c) a coverage tool
d) a test management tool
e) a static analysis tool
30 A tool that supports traceability, recording of incidents or scheduling of tests is called:
a) a dynamic analysis tool
b) a test execution tool
c) a debugging tool
d) a test management tool
e) a configuration management tool
31 What information need not be included in a test incident report:
a) how to fix the fault
b) how to reproduce the fault
c) test environment details
d) severity, priority
e) the actual and expected outcomes
32 Which expression best matches the following characteristics or review processes:
1. led by author
2. undocumented
3. no management participation
4. led by a trained moderator or leader
5. uses entry exit criteria
s) inspection
t) peer review
u) informal review
v) walkthrough
a) s = 4, t = 3, u = 2 and 5, v = 1
b) s = 4 and 5, t = 3, u = 2, v = 1
c) s = 1 and 5, t = 3, u = 2, v = 4
d) s = 5, t = 4, u = 3, v = 1 and 2
e) s = 4 and 5, t = 1, u = 2, v = 3
33 Which of the following is NOT part of system testing:
a) business process-based testing
b) performance, load and stress testing
c) requirements-based testing
d) usability testing
e) top-down integration testing
34 What statement about expected outcomes is FALSE:
a) expected outcomes are defined by the software’s behaviour
b) expected outcomes are derived from a specification, not from the code
c) expected outcomes include outputs to a screen and changes to files and databases
d) expected outcomes should be predicted before a test is run
e) expected outcomes may include timing constraints such as response times
35 The standard that gives definitions of testing terms is:
a) ISO/IEC 12207
b) BS7925-1
c) BS7925-2
d) ANSI/IEEE 829
e) ANSI/IEEE 729
36 The cost of fixing a fault:
a) Is not important
b) Increases as we move the product towards live use
c) Decreases as we move the product towards live use
d) Is more expensive if found in requirements than functional design
e) Can never be determined
37 Which of the following is NOT included in the Test Plan document of the Test Documentation Standard:
a) Test items (i.e. software versions)
b) What is not to be tested
c) Test environments
d) Quality plans
e) Schedules and deadlines
38 Could reviews or inspections be considered part of testing:
a) No, because they apply to development documentation
b) No, because they are normally applied before testing
c) No, because they do not apply to the test documentation
d) Yes, because both help detect faults and improve quality
e) Yes, because testing includes all non-constructive activities
39 Which of the following is not part of performance testing:
a) Measuring response time
b) Measuring transaction rates
c) Recovery testing
d) Simulating many users
e) Generating many transactions
40 Error guessing is best used
a) As the first approach to deriving test cases
b) After more formal techniques have been applied
c) By inexperienced testers
d) After the system has gone live
e) Only by end users
Question number Correct answer
1 C
2 C
3 E
4 E
5 C
6 A
7 B
8 B
9 C
10 E
11 B
12 B
13 B
14 B
15 E
16 C
17 B
18 C
19 C
20 A
21 B
22 D
23 A
24 D
25 A
26 A
27 D
28 C
29 A
30 E
31 E
32 B
33 E
34 A
35 B
36 B
37 D
38 D
39 C
40 B
1. Deciding How much testing is enough should take into account :-
i. Level of Risk including Technical and Business product and project risk
ii. Project constraints such as time and budget
iii. Size of Testing Team
iv. Size of the Development Team
a) i,ii,iii are true and iv is false
b) i,,iv are true and ii is false
c) i,ii are true and iii,iv are false
d) ii,iii,iv are true and i is false
2. Test planning has which of the following major tasks?
i. Determining the scope and risks, and identifying the objectives of testing.
ii. Determining the test approach (techniques,test items, coverage, identifying and interfacing the teams involved in testing , testware)
iii. Reviewing the Test Basis (such as requirements,architecture,design,interface)
iv. Determining the exit criteria.
a) i,ii,iv are true and iii is false
b) i,,iv are true and ii is false
c) i,ii are true and iii,iv are false
d) ii,iii,iv are true and i is false
3. Evaluating testability of the requirements and system are a part of which phase:-
a) Test Analysis and Design
b) Test Planning and control
c) Test Implementation and execution
d) Evaluating exit criteria and reporting
4. One of the fields on a form contains a text box which accepts alphabets in lower or upper case. Indentify the invalid Equivalance class value.
a. CLASS
b. cLASS
c. CLass
d. CLa01ss
5. In a system designed to work out the tax to be paid:
An employee has £4000 of salary tax free. The next £1500 is taxed at 10% The next £28000 is taxed at 22% Any further amount is taxed at 40% Which of these groups of numbers would fall into the same equivalence class?
a) £4800; £14000; £28000
b) £5200; £5500; £28000
c) £28001; £32000; £35000
d) £5800; £28000; £32000
6. Which of the following has highest level of independence in which test cases are :
a) Designed by persons who write the software under test
b) Designed by a person from a different section
c) Designed by a person from a different organization
d) Designed by another person
7. We use the output of the requirement analysis, the requirement specification as the input for writing :-
a) User Acceptance Test Cases
b) Integration Level Test Cases
c) Unit Level Test Cases
d) Program specifications
8. Validation involves which of the following
i. Helps to check the Quality of the Built Product
ii. Helps to check that we have built the right product.
iii. Helps in developing the product
iv. Monitoring tool wastage and obsoleteness.
a) Options i,ii,iii,iv are true.
b) ii is true and i,iii,iv are false
c) i,ii,iii are true and iv is false
d) iii is true and i,ii,iv are false.
9. Which of the following uses Impact Analysis most?
a) Component testing
b) Non-functional system testing
c) User acceptance testing
d) Maintenance testing
10. What is the expected result for each of the following test cases?
A. Citibank card member, holding a Silver room
B. Non Citibank-member, holding a Platinum room
a) A – Don’t offer any upgrade, B – Don’t offer any upgrade.
b) A – Don’t offer any upgrade, B – Offer upgrade to Gold.
c) A – Offer upgrade to Silver, B – Offer upgrade to Silver.
d) A – Offer upgrade to Gold, B – Don’t offer any upgrade.
11. Repeated Testing of an already tested program, after modification, to discover any defects introduced or uncovered as a result of the changes in the software being tested or in another related or unrelated software component:
a) Re Testing .
b) Confirmation Testing
c) Regression Testing
d) Negative Testing
12. Impact Analysis helps to decide :-a) How much regression testing should be done.
b) Exit Criteria
c) How many more test cases need to written.
d) Different Tools to perform Regression Testing
13. Functional system testing is:
a) testing that the system functions with other systems
b) testing that the components that comprise the system function together
c) testing the end to end functionality of the system as a whole
d) testing the system performs functions within specified response times
14. Consider the above state transition diagram of a switch.
Which of the following represents an invalid state transition?
a) OFF to ON
b) ON to OFF
c) FAULT to ON
15. Peer Reviews are also called as :-a) Inspection
b) Walkthrough
c) Technical Review
d) Formal Review
16. Consider the following statements:
i. 100% statement coverage guarantees 100% branch coverage.
ii. 100% branch coverage guarantees 100% statement coverage.
iii. 100% branch coverage guarantees 100% decision coverage.
iv. 100% decision coverage guarantees 100% branch coverage.
v. 100% statement coverage guarantees 100% decision coverage.
a) ii is True; i, iii, iv & v are False
b) i & v are True; ii, iii & iv are False
c) ii & iii are True; i, iv & v are False
d) ii, iii & iv are True; i & v are False
17. The Kick Off phase of a formal review includes the following :-
a) Explaining the objective
b) Fixing defects found typically done by author
c) Follow up
d) Individual Meeting preparations
18. Match every stage of the software Development Life cycle with the Testing Life cycle:i. Hi-level design a Unit tests
ii. Code b Acceptance tests
iii. Low-level design c System tests
iv. Business requirements d Integration tests
a) i-d , ii-a , iii-c , iv-b
b) i-c , ii-d , iii-a , iv-b
c) i-b , ii-a , iii-d , iv-c
d) i-c , ii-a , iii-d , iv-b
19. Which of the following is not phase of the Fundamental Test Process?a) Test Planning and Control
b) Test implementation and Execution
c) Requirement Analysis
d) Evaluating Exit criteria and reporting
20. Which of the following techniques is NOT a black box technique?
a) State transition testing
b) LCSAJ (Linear Code Sequence and Jump)
c) syntax testing
d) boundary value analysis
21. Success Factors for a review include :
i. Each Review does not have a predefined objective
ii. Defects found are welcomed and expressed objectively
iii. Management supports a good review process.
iv. There is an emphasis on learning and process improvement.
a) ii,iii,iv are correct and i is incorrect
b) iii , i , iv is correct and ii is incorrect
c) i , iii , iv , ii is in correct
d) ii is correct
22. Defects discovered by static analysis tools include :
i. Variables that are never used.
ii. Security vulnerabilities.
iii. Programming Standard Violations
iv. Uncalled functions and procedures
a) i , ii,iii,iv is correct
b) iii ,is correct I,ii,iv are incorrect.
c) i ,ii, iii and iv are incorrect
d) iv, ii is correct
23. Test Conditions are derived from :-
a) Specifications
b) Test Cases
c) Test Data
d) Test Design
24. Which of the following is true about White and Black Box Testing Technique:-
a) Equivalance partitioning, Decision Table and Control flow are White box Testing Techniques.
b) Equivalence partitioning , Boundary Value Analysis , Data Flow are Black Box Testing Techniques.
c) Equivalence partitioning , State Transition , Use Case Testing are black box Testing Techniques.
d) Equivalence Partioning , State Transition , Use Case Testing and Decision Table are White Box Testing Techniques.
25. Regression testing should be performed:
i. every week
ii. after the software has changed
iii. as often as possible
iv. when the environment has changed
v. when the project manager says
a) i & ii are true, iii, iv & v are false
b) ii, iii & iv are true, i & v are false
c) ii & iv are true, i, iii & v are false
d) ii is true, i, iii, iv & v are false
26. Benefits of Independent Testing
a) Independent testers are much more qualified than Developers
b) Independent testers see other and different defects and are unbiased.
c) Independent Testers cannot identify defects.
d) Independent Testers can test better than developers
27. Minimum Tests Required for Statement Coverage and Branch Coverage :-Read P
Read Q
If p+q > 100 then
Print “Large”
End if
If p > 50 then
Print “pLarge”
End if
a) Statement coverage is 2, Branch Coverage is 2
b) Statement coverage is 3 and branch coverage is 2
c) Statement coverage is 1 and branch coverage is 2
d) Statement Coverage is 4 and Branch coverage is 2
28. Minimum Test Required for Statement Coverage :-Disc = 0
Order-qty = 0
Read Order-qty
If Order-qty >=20 then
Disc = 0.05
If Order-qty >=100 then
Disc =0.1
End if
End if
a) Statement coverage is 4
b) Statement coverage is 1
c) Statement coverage is 3
d) Statement Coverage is 2
29. The structure of an incident report is covered in the Standard for Software Test Documentation IEEE 829 and is called as : -
a) Anomaly Report
b) Defect Report
c) Test Defect Report
d) Test Incident Report
30. Which of the following is the task of a Test Lead / Leader.
i. Interaction with the Test Tool Vendor to identify best ways to leverage test tool on the project.
ii. Write Test Summary Reports based on the information gathered during testing
iii. Decide what should be automated , to what degree and how.
iv. Create the Test Specifications
a) i, ii, iii is true and iv is false
b) ii,iii,iv is true and i is false
c) i is true and ii,iii,iv are false
d) iii and iv is correct and i and ii are incorrect
31. Features of White Box Testing Technique :-i. We use explicit knowledge of the internal workings of the item being tested to select the test data.
ii. Uses specific knowledge of programming code to examine outputs and assumes that the tester knows the path of logic in a unit or a program.
iii. Checking for the performance of the application
iv. Also checks for functionality.
a) i, ii are true and iii and iv are false
b) iii is true and i,ii, iv are false
c) ii ,iii is true and i,iv is false
d) iii and iv are true and i,ii are false
32. Which of the following is a part of Test Closure Activities?i. Checking which planned deliverables have been delivered
ii. Defect report analysis.
iii. Finalizing and archiving testware.
iv. Analyzing lessons.
a) i , ii , iv are true and iii is false
b) i , ii , iii are true and iv is false
c) i , iii , iv are true and ii is false
d) All of above are true
33. Which of the following will be the best definition for Testing :-a) The goal / purpose of testing is to demonstrate that the program works.
b) The purpose of testing is to demonstrate that the program is defect free.
c) The purpose of testing is to demonstrate that the program does what it is supposed to do.
d) Testing is executing Software for the purpose of finding defects.
34. Which of the following is not a type of incremental testing approach?a) Top down
b) Big-bang
c) Bottom up
d) Functional incrementation.
35. Drivers are also known as:
i. Spade
ii. Test harness
iii. Scaffoldinga) i , ii are true and iii is false
b) i , iii are true and ii is false
c) ii , iii are true and i is false
d) All of the above are true
36. Exit Criteria may consist of :-i. Thoroughness measures , such as coverage of code, functionality or risk
ii. Estimates of Defect density or reliability measures.
iii. Residual risk such as defects not fixed or lack of test coverage in certain areas
iv. Verifying the Test Environment.
a) iv is correct and i,ii,iii are incorrect.
b) i,ii,iii is correct and iv is incorrect
c) ii is correct and i,ii,iii are incorrect
d) iii and iv are correct and i,ii are incorrect
37. Which of the following helps in monitoring the Test Progress:-i. Percentage of Test Case Execution
ii. Percentage of work done in test environment preparation.
iii. Defect Information e.g. defect density, defects found and fixed
iv. The size of the testing Team and skills of the engineers
a) iv is correct and i,ii,iii are incorrect
b) i,ii,iii are correct and iv is incorrect
c) i,ii are correct and iii,iv are incorrect
d) i,iv are correct and ii , iii are incorrect
38. The selection of a test approach should consider the context :-i. Risk of Failure of the Project, hazards to the product and risks of product failure to humans
ii. Skills and experience of the people in the proposed technique, tools and methods
iii. The objective of the testing endeavor and the mission of the testing team.
iv. The size of the testing Team
a) i,ii,iii,iv are true
b) i,ii,iii are true and iv is false.
c) ii,iii,iv are true and i is false.
d) i,iv are true and ii, iii are false.
39. In case of Large Systems :-a) Only few tests should be run
b) Testing should be on the basis of Risk
c) Only Good Test Cases should be executed.
d) Test Cases written by good test engineers should be executed.
40. The Provision and Management of a controlled library containing all the configurations items is called asa) Configuration Control
b) Status Accounting
c) Configuration Identification
d) Configuration Identification
Answers :
1 c
2 a
3 a
4 d
5 d
6 c
7 a
8 b
9 d
10 d
11 c
12 a
13 c
14 c
15 c
16 d
17 a
18 d
19 c
20 b
21 a
22 a
23 a
24 c
25 c
26 b
27 c
28 b
29 a
30 a
31 a
32 c
33 d
34 b
35 c
36 b
37 b
38 b
39 b
40 a
Posted by Shailaja Kiran at 03:20 0 comments
Labels: ISTQB/ISEB, Sample Papers
Wednesday, 7 May 2008
Sample Paper 8
1. Deliverables of test design phase include all the following except (Testing
artifacts)
a) Test data
b) Test data plan
c) Test summary report
d) Test procedure plan
2. Which of the following is not decided in the test-planning phase? (Testing
artifacts)
a) Schedules and deliverables
b) Hardware and software
c) Entry and exit criteria
d) Types of test cases
3. Typical defects that are easier to find in reviews than in dynamic testing are:
A. deviations from standards,
B.requirement defects,
C.design defects,
D.insufficient maintainability and incorrect interface specifications.
E.All of the above.
4. Load Testing Tools (Per. Testing)
a) reduces the time spent by the testers
b) reduces the resources spent (hardware)
c) mostly used in web testing
d) all of the above
5. Reviews, static analysis and dynamic testing have the same objective –
A.identifying defects.
B. fixing defects.
C. 1 and 2
D. None
6. Defect arrival rate curve:
A. Shows the number of newly discovered defects per unit time
B. Shows the number of open defects per unit time.
C. Shows the cumulative total number of defects found up to this time.
D. Any of these, depending on the company.
7. What are the 2 major components taken into consideration with risk analysis?
(Test Mgmt)
a) The probability the negative event will occur
b) The potential loss or impact associated with the event
c) Both a and b
d) Neither a nor b
8. We can achieve complete statement coverage but still miss bugs because:
A. The failure occurs only if you reach a statement taking the TRUE branch of an IF
statement, and you got to the statement with a test that passed through the FALSE
branch.
B. The failure depends on the program's inability to handle specific data values,
rather than on the program's flow of control.
C. Both A and B
D. We are not required to test code that customers are unlikely to execute.
9. Who is responsible for conducting test readiness review? (Performing
Test)
a. Test manager
b. Test engineer
c. both A & B
d. Project Manager
10. What if the project isn't big enough to justify extensive testing? (Test Mgmt)
a) Use risk based analysis to find out which areas need to be tested
b) Use automation tool for testing
c) a and b
d) None of the above
11. What are the key features to be concentrated upon when doing a testing for
world wide web sites (Test Execution)
a) Interaction between html pages
b) Performance on the client side
c) Security aspects
d) All of the above
12. What can be done if requirements are changing continuously? (Test Mgmt)
a) Work with the project's stakeholders early on to understand how
requirements might change so that alternate test plans and strategies
can be worked out in advance, if possible.
b) Negotiate to allow only easily-implemented new requirements into the
project, while moving more difficult new requirements into future
versions of the application
c) Both a and b
d) None of the above
13. The selection of test cases for regression testing (Testing artifacts)
a) Requires knowledge on the bug fixes and how it affect the system
b) Includes the area of frequent defects
c) Includes the area which has undergone many/recent code changes
d) All of the above
14. Measurement dysfunction is a problem because:
A. Even though the numbers you look at appear better, to achieve these numbers, people are doing other aspects of their work much less well.B. We don't know how to measure a variable (our measurement is dysfunctional) and
so we don't know how to interpret the result.
C. You are measuring the wrong thing and thus reaching the wrong conclusions.
D. All of the above.
15. What do you mean by “Having to say NO” (test planning process)
a. No, the problem is not with testers
b. No, the software is not ready for production
c. Both a & b
d. none of the above
16. According to the lecture, there are several risks of managing your project's schedule
with a statistical reliability model. These include (choose one or more of the following):
A. Testers spend more energy early in the product trying to find bugs than preparing
to do the rest of the project's work more efficiently
B. Managers might not realize that the testing effort is ineffective, late in the project,
because they expect a low rate of bug finding, so the low rate achieved doesn't
alarm them.
C. It can increase the end-of-project pressure on testers to not find bugs, or to not
report bugs.
D. All of the above
17. Operations testing is (Performing Test)
a. compliance testing
b. disaster testing
c. verifying compliance to rules
d. functional testing
e. ease of operations
18. Tools like change Man, Clear case are used as (test planning process)
a. functional automation tools
b. performance testing tools
c. configuration management tools
d. none of the above.
19. Important consequences of the impossibility of complete testing are (Choose one or more answers):
A. We can never be certain that the program is bug free.
B. We have no definite stopping point for testing, which makes it easier for some
managers to argue for very little testing.
C. We have no easy answer for what testing tasks should always be required,
because every task takes time that could be spent on other high importance tasks.
D. All of the above.
20. Which is not in sequence in 11 Step Software Testing process (Tester’s
Role SDLC)
a Assess development plan and status
b Develop the test plan
c Test software design
d Test software requirement
21. In the MASPAR case study:
A. Security failures were the result of untested parts of code.
B. The development team achieved complete statement and branch coverage but
missed a serious bug in the MASPAR operating system.
C. An error in the code was so obscure that you had to test the function with almost
every input value to find its two special-case failures.
D. All of the above.
22. Complete statement and branch coverage means:
A. That you have tested every statement in the program.
B. That you have tested every statement and every branch in the program.
C. That you have tested every IF statement in the program.
D. That you have tested every combination of values of IF statements in the program
23. What if the project isn't big enough to justify extensive testing? (Test Mgmt)
a) Use risk based analysis to find out which areas need to be tested
b) Use automation tool for testing
c) a and b
d) None of the above
24. Security falls under (Performing Test)
a. compliance testing
b. disaster testing
c. verifying compliance to rules
d. functional testing
e. ease of operations
25. Which is the best definition of complete testing:
A. You have discovered every bug in the program.
B. You have tested every statement, branch, and combination of branches in the
program.
C. You have completed every test in the test plan.
D. You have reached the scheduled ship date.
26. What is the concept of introducing a small change to the program and having the
effects of that change show up in some test? (Testing concepts)
a) Desk checking
b) Debugging a program
c) A mutation error
d) Performance testing
e) Introducing mutations
Posted by Shailaja Kiran at 03:49 8 comments
Labels: ISTQB/ISEB, Sample Papers
Wednesday, 7 November 2007
ISTQB TEST 7
ISTQB Foundation Level Mock Test 2
Duration: 1 hour
Instructions:
1. Pass criteria will be 60%
2. No negative marking
1. COTS is known as
A. Commercial off the shelf software
B. Compliance of the software
C. Change control of the software
D. Capable off the shelf software
2. From the below given choices, which one is the ‘Confidence testing’
A. Sanity testing
B. System testing
C. Smoke testing
D. Regression testing
3. ‘Defect Density’ calculated in terms of
A. The number of defects identified in a component or system divided by the size of the component or the system
B. The number of defects found by a test phase divided by the number found by that test phase and any other means after wards
C. The number of defects identified in the component or system divided by the number of defects found by a test phase
D. The number of defects found by a test phase divided by the number found by the size of the system
4. ‘Be bugging’ is known as
A. Preventing the defects by inspection
B. Fixing the defects by debugging
C. Adding known defects by seeding
D. A process of fixing the defects by tester
5. An expert based test estimation is also known as
A. Narrow band Delphi
B. Wide band Delphi
C. Bespoke Delphi
D. Robust Delphi
6. When testing a grade calculation system, a tester determines that all scores from 90 to 100 will yield a grade of A, but scores below 90 will not. This analysis is known as:
A. Equivalence partitioning
B. Boundary value analysis
C. Decision table
D. Hybrid analysis
7. All of the following might be done during unit testing except
A. Desk check
B. Manual support testing
C. Walkthrough
D. Compiler based testing
9. Which of the following characteristics is primarily associated with software reusability?
A. The extent to which the software can be used in other applications
B. The extent to which the software can be used by many different users
C. The capability of the software to be moved to a different platform
D. The capability of one system to be coupled with another system
10. Which of the following software change management activities is most vital to assessing the impact of proposed software modifications?
A. Baseline identification B. Configuration auditing
C. Change control D. Version control
11. Which of the following statements is true about a software verification and validation program?
I. It strives to ensure that quality is built into software.
II. It provides management with insights into the state of a software project.
III. It ensures that alpha, beta, and system tests are performed.
IV. It is executed in parallel with software development activities.
A. I, II&III B.II, III&IV C.I, II&IV D.I, III&IV
12. Which of the following is a requirement of an effective software environment?
I. Ease of use
II. Capacity for incremental implementation
III. Capability of evolving with the needs of a project
IV. Inclusion of advanced tools
A.I, II &III B.I, II &IV C.II, III&IV D.I, III&IV
13. A test manager wants to use the resources available for the automated testing of a web application. The best choice is
A. Test automater, web specialist, DBA, test lead
B. Tester, test automater, web specialist, DBA
C. Tester, test lead, test automater, DBA
D. Tester, web specialist, test lead, test automater
14. A project manager has been transferred to a major software development project that is in the implementation phase. The highest priority for this project manager should be to
B. Establish a relationship with the customer
C. Learn the project objectives and the existing project plan
D. Modify the project’ s organizational structure to meet the manager’ s management style
E. Ensure that the project proceeds at its current pace
15. Change X requires a higher level of authority than Change Y in which of the following pairs?
Change X Change Y
A. Code in development Code in production
B. Specifications during requirements analysis Specifications during systems test
C. Documents requested by the technical development group Documents requested by customers
D. A product distributed to several sites A product with a single user
16. Which of the following functions is typically supported by a software quality information system?
I. Record keeping
II. System design
III. Evaluation scheduling
IV. Error reporting
A.I, II&III B.II, III &IV C.I, III &IV D.I, II & IV
17. During the testing of a module tester ‘X’ finds a bug and assigned it to developer. But developer rejects the same, saying that it’s not a bug. What ‘X’ should do?
A. Report the issue to the test manager and try to settle with the developer.
B. Retest the module and confirm the bug
C. Assign the same bug to another developer
D. Send to the detailed information of the bug encountered and check the reproducibility
18. The primary goal of comparing a user manual with the actual behavior of the running program during system testing is to
A. Find bugs in the program
B. Check the technical accuracy of the document
C. Ensure the ease of use of the document
D. Ensure that the program is the latest version
19. A type of integration testing in which software elements, hardware elements, or both are combined all at once into a component or an overall system, rather than in stages.
A. System Testing B. Big-Bang Testing
C. Integration Testing D. Unit Testing
20. In practice, which Life Cycle model may have more, fewer or different levels of development and testing, depending on the project and the software product. For example, there may be component integration testing after component testing, and system integration testing after system testing.
A. Water Fall Model B.V-Model
C. Spiral Model D. RAD Model
21. Which technique can be used to achieve input and output coverage? It can be applied to human input, input via interfaces to a system, or interface parameters in integration testing.
A. Error Guessing B. Boundary Value Analysis
C. Decision Table testing D. Equivalence partitioning
22. There is one application, which runs on a single terminal. There is another application that works on multiple terminals. What are the test techniques you will use on the second application that you would not do on the first application?
A. Integrity, Response time B. Concurrency test, Scalability
C. Update & Rollback, Response time D. Concurrency test, Integrity
23. You are the test manager and you are about the start the system testing. The developer team says that due to change in requirements they will be able to deliver the system to you for testing 5 working days after the due date. You can not change the resources(work hours, test tools, etc.) What steps you will take to be able to finish the testing in time. (
A. Tell to the development team to deliver the system in time so that testing activity will be finish in time.
B. Extend the testing plan, so that you can accommodate the slip going to occur
C. Rank the functionality as per risk and concentrate more on critical functionality testing
D. Add more resources so that the slippage should be avoided
24. Item transmittal report is also known as
A. Incident report B. Release note
C. Review report D. Audit report
25. Testing of software used to convert data from existing systems for use in replacement systems
A. Data driven testing B. Migration testing
C. Configuration testing D. Back to back testing
26. Big bang approach is related to
A. Regression testing B. Inter system testing
C. Re-testing D. Integration testing
27. Cause effect graphing is related to the standard
A. BS7799 B. BS 7925/2 C. ISO/IEC 926/1 D. ISO/IEC 2382/1
28. “The tracing of requirements for a test level through the layers of a test documentation” done by
A. Horizontal tracebility B. Depth tracebility
C. Vertical tracebility D. Horizontal & Vertical tracebilities
29. A test harness is a
A. A high level document describing the principles, approach and major objectives of the organization regarding testing
B. A distance set of test activities collected into a manageable phase of a project
C. A test environment comprised of stubs and drives needed to conduct a test
D. A set of several test cases for a component or system under test
30. You are a tester for testing a large system. The system data model is very large with many attributes and there are a lot of inter dependencies with in the fields. What steps would you use to test the system and also what are the efforts of the test you have taken on the test plan
A. Improve super vision, More reviews of artifacts or program means stage containment of the defects.
B. Extend the test plan so that you can test all the inter dependencies
C. Divide the large system in to small modules and test the functionality
D. Test the interdependencies first, after that check the system as a whole
31. Change request should be submitted through development or program management. A change request must be written and should include the following criteria.
I. Definition of the change
II. Documentation to be updated
III. Name of the tester or developer
IV. Dependencies of the change request.
A. I, III and IV B. I, II and III C. II, III and IV D. I, II and IV
32. ‘Entry criteria’ should address questions such as
I. Are the necessary documentation, design and requirements information available that will allow testers to operate the system and judge correct behavior.
II. Is the test environment-lab, hardware, software and system administration support ready?
III. Those conditions and situations that must prevail in the testing process to allow testing to continue effectively and efficiently.
IV. Are the supporting utilities, accessories and prerequisites available in forms that testers can use
A. I, II and IV B. I, II and III C. I, II, III and IV D. II, III and IV.
33. “This life cycle model is basically driven by schedule and budget risks” This statement is best suited for
A. Water fall model B. Spiral model
C. Incremental model D. V-Model
34. The bug tracking system will need to capture these phases for each bug.
I. Phase injected
II. Phase detected
III. Phase fixed
IV. Phase removed
A. I, II and III B. I, II and IV C. II, III and IV D. I, III and IV
35. One of the more daunting challenges of managing a test project is that so many dependencies converge at test execution. One missing configuration file or hard ware device can render all your test results meaning less. You can end up with an entire platoon of testers sitting around for days.
Who is responsible for this incident?
A. Test managers faults only
B. Test lead faults only
C. Test manager and project manager faults
D. Testers faults only
36. System test can begin when?
I. The test team competes a three day smoke test and reports on the results to the system test phase entry meeting
II. The development team provides software to the test team 3 business days prior to starting of the system testing
III. All components are under formal, automated configuration and release management control
A. I and II only B. II and III only C. I and III only D. I, II and III
37. Test charters are used in ________ testing
A. Exploratory testing B. Usability testing
C. Component testing D. Maintainability testing
All The Best
ISTQB Foundation Level Mock Test 2 Key
Q.No Answer Q.No Answer
1 (A) 20 (B)
2 (C) 21 (D)
3 (A) 22 (C)
4 (C) 23 (C)
5 (B) 24 (B)
6 (A) 25 (B)
7 (B) 26 (D)
8 (B) 27 (B)
9 (A) 28 (A)
10 (C) 29 (C)
11 (C) 30 (A)
12 (A) 31 (D)
13 (B) 32 (A)
14 (B) 33 (D)
15 (D) 34 (B)
16 (C) 35 (A)
17 (D) 36 (D)
18 (B) 37 (A)
19 (B)
Posted by Shailaja Kiran at 09:55 7 comments
Labels: ISTQB/ISEB, Sample Papers, Testing
ISTQB TEST 6
ISTQB Foundation Level Mock Test 1
Duration: 1 hour
Instructions:
1. Pass criteria will be 60% ,
2. No negative marking
1. ___________ Testing will be performed by the people at client own locations (1M)
A. Alpha testing B. Field testing C. Performance testing D. System testing
2. System testing should investigate (2M)
A. Non-functional requirements only not Functional requirements
B. Functional requirements only not non-functional requirements
C. Non-functional requirements and Functional requirements
D. Non-functional requirements or Functional requirements
3. Which is the non-functional testing (1M)
A. Performance testing B. Unit testing
C. Regression testing D. Sanity testing
4. Who is responsible for document all the issues, problems and open point that were identified during the review meeting (2M)
A. Moderator B. Scribe C. Reviewers D. Author
5. What is the main purpose of Informal review (2M)
A. Inexpensive way to get some benefit
B. Find defects
C. Learning, gaining understanding, effect finding
D. Discuss, make decisions, solve technical problems
6. Purpose of test design technique is (1M)
A. Identifying test conditions only, not Identifying test cases
B. Not Identifying test conditions, Identifying test cases only
C. Identifying test conditions and Identifying test cases
D. Identifying test conditions or Identifying test cases
7. ___________ technique can be used to achieve input and output coverage (1M)
A. Boundary value analysis B. Equivalence partitioning
C. Decision table testing D. State transition testing
8. Use cases can be performed to test (2M)
A. Performance testing B. Unit testing
C. Business scenarios D. Static testing
9. ________________ testing is performed at the developing organization’s site (1M)
A. Unit testing B. Regression testing
C. Alpha testing D. Integration testing
10. The purpose of exit criteria is (2M)
A. Define when to stop testing
B. End of test level
C. When a set of tests has achieved a specific pre condition
D. All of the above
11. Which is not the project risks (2M)
A. Supplier issues B. Organization factors
C. Technical issues D. Error-prone software delivered
12. Poor software characteristics are (3M)
A. Only Project risks
B. Only Product risks
C. Project risks and Product risks
D. Project risks or Product risks
13. ________ and ________ are used within individual workbenches to produce the right output products. (2M)
A. Tools and techniques B. Procedures and standards
C. Processes and walkthroughs D. Reviews and update
14. The software engineer's role in tool selection is (3M)
A. To identify, evaluate, and rank tools, and recommend tools to management
B. To determine what kind of tool is needed, then find it and buy it
C. To initiate the tool search and present a case to management
D. To identify, evaluate and select the tools
15. A _____ is the step-by-step method followed to ensure that standards are met (2M)
A. SDLC B. Project Plan C. Policy D. Procedure
16. Which of the following is the standard for the Software product quality (1M)
A. ISO 1926 B. ISO 829 C. ISO 1012 D. ISO 1028
17. Which is not the testing objectives (1M)
A. Finding defects
B. Gaining confidence about the level of quality and providing information
C. Preventing defects.
D. Debugging defects
18. Bug life cycle (1M)
A. Open, Assigned, Fixed, Closed
B. Open, Fixed, Assigned, Closed
C. Assigned, Open, Closed, Fixed
D. Assigned, Open, Fixed, Closed
19. Which is not the software characteristics (1M)
A. Reliability B. Usability C. Scalability D. Maintainability
20. Which is not a testing principle (2M)
A. Early testing B. Defect clustering
C. Pesticide paradox D. Exhaustive testing
21. ‘X’ has given a data on a person age, which should be between 1 to 99. Using BVA which is the appropriate one (3M)
A. 0,1,2,99 B. 1, 99, 100, 98 C. 0, 1, 99, 100 D. –1, 0, 1, 99
22. Which is not the fundamental test process (1M)
A. Planning and control B. Test closure activities
C. Analysis and design D. None
23. Which is not a Component testing (2M)
A. Check the memory leaks B. Check the robustness
C. Check the branch coverage D. Check the decision tables
24. PDCA is known as (1M)
A. Plan, Do, Check, Act B. Plan, Do, Correct, Act
C. Plan, Debug, Check, Act D. Plan, Do, Check, Accept
25. Contract and regulation testing is a part of (2M)
A. System testing B. Acceptance testing
C. Integration testing D. Smoke testing
26. Which is not a black box testing technique (1M)
A. Equivalence partition B. Decision tables
C. Transaction diagrams D. Decision testing
27. Arc testing is known as (2M)
A. Branch testing B. Agile testing
C. Beta testing D. Ad-hoc testing
28. A software model that can’t be used in functional testing (2M)
A. Process flow model B. State transaction model
C. Menu structure model D. Plain language specification model
29. Find the mismatch (2M)
A. Test data preparation tools – Manipulate Data bases
B. Test design tools – Generate test inputs
C. Requirement management tools – Enables individual tests to be traceable
D. Configuration management tools – Check for consistence
30. The principle of Cyclomatic complexity, considering L as edges or links, N as nodes, P as independent paths (2M)
A. L-N +2P
B. N-L +2P
C. N-L +P
D. N-L +P
31. FPA is used to (2M)
A. To measure the functional requirements of the project
B. To measure the size of the functionality of an Information system
C. To measure the functional testing effort
D. To measure the functional flow
32. Which is not a test Oracle (2M)
A. The existing system (For a bench mark)
B. The code
C. Individual’s knowledge
D. User manual
33. Find the correct flow of the phases of a formal review (3M)
A. Planning, Review meeting, Rework, Kick off
B. Planning, Individual preparation, Kick off, Rework
C. Planning, Review meeting, Rework, Follow up
D. Planning, Individual preparation, Follow up, Kick off
34. Stochastic testing using statistical information or operational profiles uses the following method (3M)
A. Heuristic testing approach
B. Methodical testing approach
C. Model based testing approach
D. Process or standard compliant testing approach
35. A project that is in the implementation phase is six weeks behind schedule. The delivery date for the product is four months away. The project is not allowed to slip the delivery date or compromise on the quality standards established for this product. Which of the following actions would bring this project back on schedule? (3M)
A. Eliminate some of the requirements that have not yet been implemented.
B. Add more engineers to the project to make up for lost work.
C. Ask the current developers to work overtime until the lost work is recovered.
D. Hire more software quality assurance personnel.
36. One person has been dominating the current software process improvement meeting. Which of the following techniques should the facilitator use to bring other team members into the discussion? (3M)
A. Confront the person and ask that other team members be allowed to express their opinions.
B. Wait for the person to pause, acknowledge the person’ s opinion, and ask for someone else’ s opinion.
C. Switch the topic to an issue about which the person does not have a strong opinion.
D. Express an opinion that differs from the person’ s opinion in order to encourage others to express their ideas.
37. Maintenance releases and technical assistance centers are examples of which of the following costs of quality? (3M)
A. External failure
B. Internal failure
C. Appraisal
D. Prevention
All the best
ISTQB Foundation Level Mock Test 1 Key
Q.No Answer Q.No Answer
1 B 20 D
2 C 21 C
3 A 22 D
4 B 23 D
5 A 24 A
6 C 25 B
7 B 26 D
8 C 27 A
9 C 28 C
10 D 29 D
11 D 30 A
12 B 31 B
13 B 32 B
14 A 33 C
15 D 34 C
16 A 35 A
17 D 36 B
18 A 37 A
19 C
Posted by Shailaja Kiran at 09:53 5 comments
Labels: Sample Papers, Testing
ISTQB TEST 5
Foundation Certificate In Software Testing Practice Exam
Time allowed: 1 hour
40 QUESTIONS
Question
NOTE: Only one answer per question
1 We split testing into distinct stages primarily because:
a) Each test stage has a different purpose.
b) It is easier to manage testing in stages.
c) We can run different tests in different environments.
d) The more stages we have, the better the testing.
2 Which of the following is likely to benefit most from the use of test tools providing test capture and replay facilities?
a) Regression testing
b) Integration testing
c) System testing
d) User acceptance testing
3 Which of the following statements is NOT correct?
a) A minimal test set that achieves 100% LCSAJ coverage will also achieve 100% branch coverage.
b) A minimal test set that achieves 100% path coverage will also achieve 100% statement coverage.
c) A minimal test set that achieves 100% path coverage will generally detect more faults than one that achieves 100% statement coverage.
d) A minimal test set that achieves 100% statement coverage will generally detect more faults than one that achieves 100% branch coverage.
4 Which of the following requirements is testable?
a) The system shall be user friendly.
b) The safety-critical parts of the system shall contain 0 faults.
c) The response time shall be less than one second for the specified design load.
d) The system shall be built to be portable.
5 Analyse the following highly simplified procedure:
Ask: “What type of ticket do you require, single or return?”
IF the customer wants ‘return’
Ask: “What rate, Standard or Cheap-day?”
IF the customer replies ‘Cheap-day’
Say: “That will be £11:20”
ELSE
Say: “That will be £19:50”
ENDIF
ELSE
Say: “That will be £9:75”
ENDIF
Now decide the minimum number of tests that are needed to ensure that all
the questions have been asked, all combinations have occurred and all
replies given.
a) 3
b) 4
c) 5d) 6
6 Error guessing:
a) supplements formal test design techniques.
b) can only be used in component, integration and system testing.
c) is only performed in user acceptance testing.
d) is not repeatable and should not be used.
7 Which of the following is NOT true of test coverage criteria?
a) Test coverage criteria can be measured in terms of items exercised by a test suite.
b) A measure of test coverage criteria is the percentage of user requirements covered.
c) A measure of test coverage criteria is the percentage of faults found.
d) Test coverage criteria are often used when specifying test completion criteria.
8 In prioritising what to test, the most important objective is to:
a) find as many faults as possible.
b) test high risk areas.
c) obtain good test coverage.
d) test whatever is easiest to test.
9 Given the following sets of test management terms (v-z), and activity descriptions (1-5), which one of the following best pairs the two sets?
v – test control
w – test monitoring
x - test estimation
y - incident management
z - configuration control
1 - calculation of required test resources
2 - maintenance of record of test results
3 - re-allocation of resources when tests overrun
4 - report on deviation from test plan
5 - tracking of anomalous test results
a) v-3,w-2,x-1,y-5,z-4
b) v-2,w-5,x-1,y-4,z-3
c) v-3,w-4,x-1,y-5,z-2
d) v-2,w-1,x-4,y-3,z-5
10 Which one of the following statements about system testing is NOT true?
a) System tests are often performed by independent teams.
b) Functional testing is used more than structural testing.
c) Faults found during system tests can be very expensive to fix.
d) End-users should be involved in system tests.
11 Which of the following is false?
a) Incidents should always be fixed.
b) An incident occurs when expected and actual results differ.
c) Incidents can be analysed to assist in test process improvement.
d) An incident can be raised against documentation.
12 Enough testing has been performed when:
a) time runs out.
b) the required level of confidence has been achieved.
c) no more faults are found.
d) the users won’t find any serious faults.
13 Which of the following is NOT true of incidents?
a) Incident resolution is the responsibility of the author of the software under test.
b) Incidents may be raised against user requirements.
c) Incidents require investigation and/or correction.
d) Incidents are raised when expected and actual results differ.
14 Which of the following is not described in a unit test standard?
a) syntax testing
b) equivalence partitioning
c) stress testing
d) modified condition/decision coverage
15 Which of the following is false?
a) In a system two different failures may have different severities.
b) A system is necessarily more reliable after debugging for the removal of a fault.
c) A fault need not affect the reliability of a system.
d) Undetected errors may lead to faults and eventually to incorrect behaviour.
16 Which one of the following statements, about capture-replay tools, is NOT correct?
a) They are used to support multi-user testing.
b) They are used to capture and animate user requirements.
c) They are the most frequently purchased types of CAST tool.
d) They capture aspects of user behaviour.
17 How would you estimate the amount of re-testing likely to be required?
a) Metrics from previous similar projects
b) Discussions with the development team
c) Time allocated for regression testing
d) a & b
18 Which of the following is true of the V-model?
a) It states that modules are tested against user requirements.
b) It only models the testing phase.
c) It specifies the test techniques to be used.
d) It includes the verification of designs.
19 The oracle assumption:
a) is that there is some existing system against which test output may be checked.
b) is that the tester can routinely identify the correct outcome of a test.
c) is that the tester knows everything about the software under test.
d) is that the tests are reviewed by experienced testers.
20 Which of the following characterises the cost of faults?
a) They are cheapest to find in the early development phases and the most expensive to fix in the latest test phases.
b) They are easiest to find during system testing but the most expensive to fix then.
c) Faults are cheapest to find in the early development phases but the most expensive to fix then.
d) Although faults are most expensive to find during early development phases, they are cheapest to fix then.
21 Which of the following should NOT normally be an objective for a test?
a) To find faults in the software.
b) To assess whether the software is ready for release.
c) To demonstrate that the software doesn’t work.
d) To prove that the software is correct.
22 Which of the following is a form of functional testing?
a) Boundary value analysis
b) Usability testing
c) Performance testing
d) Security testing
23 Which of the following would NOT normally form part of a test plan?
a) Features to be tested
b) Incident reports
c) Risks
d) Schedule
24 Which of these activities provides the biggest potential cost saving from the use of CAST?
a) Test management
b) Test design
c) Test execution
d) Test planning
25 Which of the following is NOT a white box technique?
a) Statement testing
b) Path testing
c) Data flow testing
d) State transition testing
26 Data flow analysis studies:
a) possible communications bottlenecks in a program.
b) the rate of change of data values as a program executes.
c) the use of data on paths through the code.
d) the intrinsic complexity of the code.
27 In a system designed to work out the tax to be paid:
An employee has £4000 of salary tax free. The next £1500 is taxed at 10%
The next £28000 is taxed at 22%
Any further amount is taxed at 40%
To the nearest whole pound, which of these is a valid Boundary Value Analysis test case?
a) £1500
b) £32001
c) £33501
d) £28000
28 An important benefit of code inspections is that they:
a) enable the code to be tested before the execution environment is ready.
b) can be performed by the person who wrote the code.
c) can be performed by inexperienced staff.
d) are cheap to perform.
29 Which of the following is the best source of Expected Outcomes for User Acceptance Test scripts?
a) Actual results
b) Program specification
c) User requirements
d) System specification
30 What is the main difference between a walkthrough and an inspection?
a) An inspection is lead by the author, whilst a walkthrough is lead by a trained moderator.
b) An inspection has a trained leader, whilst a walkthrough has no leader.
c) Authors are not present during inspections, whilst they are during walkthroughs.
d) A walkthrough is lead by the author, whilst an inspection is lead by a trained moderator.
31 Which one of the following describes the major benefit of verification early in the life cycle?
a) It allows the identification of changes in user requirements.
b) It facilitates timely set up of the test environment.
c) It reduces defect multiplication.
d) It allows testers to become involved early in the project.
32 Integration testing in the small:
a) tests the individual components that have been developed.
b) tests interactions between modules or subsystems.
c) only uses components that form part of the live system.
d) tests interfaces to other systems.
33 Static analysis is best described as:
a) the analysis of batch programs.
b) the reviewing of test plans.
c) the analysis of program code.
d) the use of black box testing.
34 Alpha testing is:
a) post-release testing by end user representatives at the developer’s site.
b) the first testing that is performed.
c) pre-release testing by end user representatives at the developer’s site.
d) pre-release testing by end user representatives at their sites.
35 A failure is:
a) found in the software; the result of an error.
b) departure from specified behaviour.
c) an incorrect step, process or data definition in a computer program.
d) a human action that produces an incorrect result.
36 In a system designed to work out the tax to be paid:
An employee has £4000 of salary tax free. The next £1500 is taxed at 10%
The next £28000 is taxed at 22%
Any further amount is taxed at 40%
Which of these groups of numbers would fall into the same equivalence class?
a) £4800; £14000; £28000
b) £5200; £5500; £28000
c) £28001; £32000; £35000
d) £5800; £28000; £32000
37 The most important thing about early test design is that it:
a) makes test preparation easier.
b) means inspections are not required.
c) can prevent fault multiplication.
d) will find all faults.
38 Which of the following statements about reviews is true?
a) Reviews cannot be performed on user requirements specifications.
b) Reviews are the least effective way of testing code.
c) Reviews are unlikely to find faults in test plans.
d) Reviews should be performed on specifications, code, and test plans.
39 Test cases are designed during:
a) test recording.
b) test planning.
c) test configuration.
d) test specification.
40 A configuration management system would NOT normally provide:
a) linkage of customer requirements to version numbers.
b) facilities to compare test results with expected results.
c) the precise differences in versions of software component source code.
d) restricted access to the source code library.
Question number Correct answer
1 A
2 A
3 D
4 C
5 A
6 A
7 C
8 B
9 C
10 D
11 A
12 B
13 A
14 C
15 B
16 B
17 D
18 D
19 B
20 A
21 D
22 A
23 B
24 C
25 D
26 C
27 C
28 A
29 C
30 D
31 C
32 B
33 C
34 C
35 B
36 D
37 C
38 D
39 D
40 B
Posted by Shailaja Kiran at 09:49 6 comments
Labels: Sample Papers, Testing
Monday, 29 October 2007
About ISTQB examination
I saw people asking lots of questions regarding testing examination.
ISTQB is the foundation level exam
CSTE is the advanced exam
Exam contains 40 question and should be completed in 1 hour.
Very tricky questions are asked.
Please click here. You will find old and new syllabus of the examination along with the Standard Glossary. Also you can book your exam.
Check out the dates available in India click here.
Click the link below to take a sample Mock test along with some information click here.
ISTQB syllabus and glossary.
Click here to download the latest copies.
The changes made in the syllabus include numbering the learning objectives, rephrasing certain terms, and removing repetitive terms. The following new terms were introduced: fault attack, incident management, retesting, error guessing, independence, iterative-incremental development model, static testing, and static technique. ISTQB also removed the following terms: software, testing, development (of software), test basis, independent testing, contractual acceptance testing, retirement, modification, migration, kick-off, review meeting, and review process.
Source: Click here
In the glossary, the following terms were added: action word driven testing, bug tracking tool, coverage measurement tools, modelling tool, monkey testing, scripted testing, specification-based technique, stress testing tool, structure-based technique, unit test framework, and white box technique. If you are preparing for the exam, keep an eye on the following changed terms: basic block, control flow graph, defect management tool, independence of testing, project risk, risk-based testing, test comparator, and test process.
Source: Glossary
Posted by Shailaja Kiran at 11:33 2 comments
Labels: ISTQB/ISEB, Sample Papers, Testing
Sunday, 16 September 2007
ISTQB Sample Paper # 4
1. An input field takes the year of birth between 1900 and 2004
The boundary values for testing this field are
a. 0,1900,2004,2005
b. 1900, 2004
c. 1899,1900,2004,2005
d. 1899, 1900, 1901,2003,2004,2005
2. Which one of the following are non-functional testing methods?
a. System testing
b. Usability testing
c. Performance testing
d. Both b & c
3. Which of the following tools would be involved in the automation of regression test?
a. Data tester
b. Boundary tester
c. Capture/Playback
d. Output comparator.
4. Incorrect form of Logic coverage is:
a. Statement Coverage
b. Pole Coverage
c. Condition Coverage
d. Path Coverage
5. Which of the following is not a quality characteristic listed in ISO 9126 Standard?
a. Functionality
b. Usability
c. Supportability
d. Maintainability
6. To test a function, the programmer has to write a _________, which calls the function to be tested and passes it test data.
a. Stub
b. Driver
c. Proxy
d. None of the above
7. Boundary value testing
a. Is the same as equivalence partitioning tests
b. Test boundary conditions on, below and above the edges of input and output equivalence classes
c. Tests combinations of input circumstances
d. Is used in white box testing strategy
8. Pick the best definition of quality
a. Quality is job one
b. Zero defects
c. Conformance to requirements
d. Work as designed
9. Fault Masking is
a. Error condition hiding another error condition
b. Creating a test case which does not reveal a fault
c. Masking a fault by developer
d. Masking a fault by a tester
10. One Key reason why developers have difficulty testing their own work is :
a. Lack of technical documentation
b. Lack of test tools on the market for developers
c. Lack of training
d. Lack of Objectivity
11. During the software development process, at what point can the test process start?
a. When the code is complete.
b. When the design is complete.
c. When the software requirements have been approved.
d. When the first code module is ready for unit testing
12. In a review meeting a moderator is a person who
a. Takes minutes of the meeting
b. Mediates between people
c. Takes telephone calls
d. Writes the documents to be reviewed
13. Given the Following program
IF X < Y
THEN Statement 1;
ELSE IF Y >= Z
THEN Statement 2;
END
McCabe’s Cyclomatic Complexity is :
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
14. How many test cases are necessary to cover all the possible sequences of statements (paths) for the following program fragment? Assume that the two conditions are independent of each other : -
…………
if (Condition 1)
then statement 1
else statement 2
fi
if (Condition 2)
then statement 3
fi
…………
a. 2 Test Cases
b. 3 Test Cases
c. 4 Test Cases
d. Not achievable
15. Acceptance test cases are based on what?
a. Requirements
b. Design
c. Code
d. Decision table
16. “How much testing is enough?”
a. This question is impossible to answer
b. This question is easy to answer
c. The answer depends on the risk for your industry, contract and special requirements
d. This answer depends on the maturity of your developers
17. A common test technique during component test is
a. Statement and branch testing
b. Usability testing
c. Security testing
d. Performance testing
18. Statement Coverage will not check for the following.
a. Missing Statements
b. Unused Branches
c. Dead Code
d. Unused Statement
19. Independent Verification & Validation is
a. Done by the Developer
b. Done by the Test Engineers
c. Done By Management
d. Done by an Entity Outside the Project’s sphere of influence
20. Code Coverage is used as a measure of what ?
a. Defects
b. Trends analysis
c. Test Effectiveness
d. Time Spent Testing
Answers
1 c
2 d
3 c
4 b
5 c
6 b
7 b
8 c
9 a
10 d
11 c
12 b
13 b
14 a
15 a
16 c
17 a
18 a
19 d
20 c
Posted by Shailaja Kiran at 01:57 2 comments
Labels: ISTQB/ISEB, Sample Papers, Testing
ISTQB Sample Paper # 3
1 We split testing into distinct stages primarily because:
a) Each test stage has a different purpose.
b) It is easier to manage testing in stages.
c) We can run different tests in different environments.
d) The more stages we have, the better the testing.
2 Which of the following is likely to benefit most from the use of test tools providing test capture and replay facilities?
a) Regression testing
b) Integration testing
c) System testing
d) User acceptance testing
3 Which of the following statements is NOT correct?
a) A minimal test set that achieves 100% LCSAJ coverage will also achieve 100% branch coverage.
b) A minimal test set that achieves 100% path coverage will also achieve 100% statement coverage.
c) A minimal test set that achieves 100% path coverage will generally detect more faults than one that achieves 100% statement coverage.
d) A minimal test set that achieves 100% statement coverage will generally detect more faults than one that achieves 100% branch coverage.
4 Which of the following requirements is testable?
a) The system shall be user friendly.
b) The safety-critical parts of the system shall contain 0 faults.
c) The response time shall be less than one second for the specified design load.
d) The system shall be built to be portable.
5 Analyse the following highly simplified procedure:
Ask: “What type of ticket do you require, single or return?”
IF the customer wants ‘return’
Ask: “What rate, Standard or Cheap-day?”
IF the customer replies ‘Cheap-day’
Say: “That will be £11:20”
ELSE
Say: “That will be £19:50”
ENDIF
ELSE
Say: “That will be £9:75”
ENDIF
Now decide the minimum number of tests that are needed to ensure that all
the questions have been asked, all combinations have occurred and all
replies given.
a) 3
b) 4
c) 5d) 6
6 Error guessing:
a) supplements formal test design techniques.
b) can only be used in component, integration and system testing.
c) is only performed in user acceptance testing.
d) is not repeatable and should not be used.
7 Which of the following is NOT true of test coverage criteria?
a) Test coverage criteria can be measured in terms of items exercised by a test suite.
b) A measure of test coverage criteria is the percentage of user requirements covered.
c) A measure of test coverage criteria is the percentage of faults found.
d) Test coverage criteria are often used when specifying test completion criteria.
8 In prioritising what to test, the most important objective is to:
a) find as many faults as possible.
b) test high risk areas.
c) obtain good test coverage.
d) test whatever is easiest to test.
9 Given the following sets of test management terms (v-z), and activity descriptions (1-5), which one of the following best pairs the two sets?
v – test control
w – test monitoring
x - test estimation
y - incident management
z - configuration control
1 - calculation of required test resources
2 - maintenance of record of test results
3 - re-allocation of resources when tests overrun
4 - report on deviation from test plan
5 - tracking of anomalous test results
a) v-3,w-2,x-1,y-5,z-4
b) v-2,w-5,x-1,y-4,z-3
c) v-3,w-4,x-1,y-5,z-2
d) v-2,w-1,x-4,y-3,z-5
10 Which one of the following statements about system testing is NOT true?
a) System tests are often performed by independent teams.
b) Functional testing is used more than structural testing.
c) Faults found during system tests can be very expensive to fix.
d) End-users should be involved in system tests.
11 Which of the following is false?
a) Incidents should always be fixed.
b) An incident occurs when expected and actual results differ.
c) Incidents can be analysed to assist in test process improvement.
d) An incident can be raised against documentation.
12 Enough testing has been performed when:
a) time runs out.
b) the required level of confidence has been achieved.
c) no more faults are found.
d) the users won’t find any serious faults.
13 Which of the following is NOT true of incidents?
a) Incident resolution is the responsibility of the author of the software under test.
b) Incidents may be raised against user requirements.
c) Incidents require investigation and/or correction.
d) Incidents are raised when expected and actual results differ.
14 Which of the following is not described in a unit test standard?
a) syntax testing
b) equivalence partitioning
c) stress testing
d) modified condition/decision coverage
15 Which of the following is false?
a) In a system two different failures may have different severities.
b) A system is necessarily more reliable after debugging for the removal of a fault.
c) A fault need not affect the reliability of a system.
d) Undetected errors may lead to faults and eventually to incorrect behaviour.
16 Which one of the following statements, about capture-replay tools, is NOT correct?
a) They are used to support multi-user testing.
b) They are used to capture and animate user requirements.
c) They are the most frequently purchased types of CAST tool.
d) They capture aspects of user behaviour.
17 How would you estimate the amount of re-testing likely to be required?
a) Metrics from previous similar projects
b) Discussions with the development team
c) Time allocated for regression testing
d) a & b
18 Which of the following is true of the V-model?
a) It states that modules are tested against user requirements.
b) It only models the testing phase.
c) It specifies the test techniques to be used.
d) It includes the verification of designs.
19 The oracle assumption:
a) is that there is some existing system against which test output may be checked.
b) is that the tester can routinely identify the correct outcome of a test.
c) is that the tester knows everything about the software under test.
d) is that the tests are reviewed by experienced testers.
20 Which of the following characterises the cost of faults?
a) They are cheapest to find in the early development phases and the most expensive to fix in the latest test phases.
b) They are easiest to find during system testing but the most expensive to fix then.
c) Faults are cheapest to find in the early development phases but the most expensive to fix then.
d) Although faults are most expensive to find during early development phases, they are cheapest to fix then.
21 Which of the following should NOT normally be an objective for a test?
a) To find faults in the software.
b) To assess whether the software is ready for release.
c) To demonstrate that the software doesn’t work.
d) To prove that the software is correct.
22 Which of the following is a form of functional testing?
a) Boundary value analysis
b) Usability testing
c) Performance testing
d) Security testing
23 Which of the following would NOT normally form part of a test plan?
a) Features to be tested
b) Incident reports
c) Risks
d) Schedule
24 Which of these activities provides the biggest potential cost saving from the use of CAST?
a) Test management
b) Test design
c) Test execution
d) Test planning
25 Which of the following is NOT a white box technique?
a) Statement testing
b) Path testing
c) Data flow testing
d) State transition testing
26 Data flow analysis studies:
a) possible communications bottlenecks in a program.
b) the rate of change of data values as a program executes.
c) the use of data on paths through the code.
d) the intrinsic complexity of the code.
27 In a system designed to work out the tax to be paid:
An employee has £4000 of salary tax free. The next £1500 is taxed at 10%
The next £28000 is taxed at 22%
Any further amount is taxed at 40%
To the nearest whole pound, which of these is a valid Boundary Value Analysis test case?
a) £1500
b) £32001
c) £33501
d) £28000
28 An important benefit of code inspections is that they:
a) enable the code to be tested before the execution environment is ready.
b) can be performed by the person who wrote the code.
c) can be performed by inexperienced staff.
d) are cheap to perform.
29 Which of the following is the best source of Expected Outcomes for User Acceptance Test scripts?
a) Actual results
b) Program specification
c) User requirements
d) System specification
30 What is the main difference between a walkthrough and an inspection?
a) An inspection is lead by the author, whilst a walkthrough is lead by a trained moderator.
b) An inspection has a trained leader, whilst a walkthrough has no leader.
c) Authors are not present during inspections, whilst they are during walkthroughs.
d) A walkthrough is lead by the author, whilst an inspection is lead by a trained moderator.
31 Which one of the following describes the major benefit of verification early in the life cycle?
a) It allows the identification of changes in user requirements.
b) It facilitates timely set up of the test environment.
c) It reduces defect multiplication.
d) It allows testers to become involved early in the project.
32 Integration testing in the small:
a) tests the individual components that have been developed.
b) tests interactions between modules or subsystems.
c) only uses components that form part of the live system.
d) tests interfaces to other systems.
33 Static analysis is best described as:
a) the analysis of batch programs.
b) the reviewing of test plans.
c) the analysis of program code.
d) the use of black box testing.
34 Alpha testing is:
a) post-release testing by end user representatives at the developer’s site.
b) the first testing that is performed.
c) pre-release testing by end user representatives at the developer’s site.
d) pre-release testing by end user representatives at their sites.
35 A failure is:
a) found in the software; the result of an error.
b) departure from specified behaviour.
c) an incorrect step, process or data definition in a computer program.
d) a human action that produces an incorrect result.
36 In a system designed to work out the tax to be paid:
An employee has £4000 of salary tax free. The next £1500 is taxed at 10%
The next £28000 is taxed at 22%
Any further amount is taxed at 40%
Which of these groups of numbers would fall into the same equivalence class?
a) £4800; £14000; £28000
b) £5200; £5500; £28000
c) £28001; £32000; £35000
d) £5800; £28000; £32000
37 The most important thing about early test design is that it:
a) makes test preparation easier.
b) means inspections are not required.
c) can prevent fault multiplication.
d) will find all faults.
38 Which of the following statements about reviews is true?
a) Reviews cannot be performed on user requirements specifications.
b) Reviews are the least effective way of testing code.
c) Reviews are unlikely to find faults in test plans.
d) Reviews should be performed on specifications, code, and test plans.
39 Test cases are designed during:
a) test recording.
b) test planning.
c) test configuration.
d) test specification.
40 A configuration management system would NOT normally provide:
a) linkage of customer requirements to version numbers.
b) facilities to compare test results with expected results.
c) the precise differences in versions of software component source code.
d) restricted access to the source code library.
1 A
2 A
3 D
4 C
5 A
6 A
7 C
8 B
9 C
10 D
11 A
12 B
13 A
14 C
15 B
16 B
17 D
18 D
19 B
20 A
21 D
22 A
23 B
24 C
25 D
26 C
27 C
28 A
29 C
30 D
31 C
32 B
33 C
34 C
35 B
36 D
37 C
38 D
39 D
40 B
Posted by Shailaja Kiran at 01:55 2 comments
Labels: ISTQB/ISEB, Sample Papers, Testing
ISTQB Sample Paper # 2
1.Software testing activities should start
a. as soon as the code is written
b. during the design stage
c. when the requirements have been formally documented
d. as soon as possible in the development life cycle
2.Faults found by users are due to:
a. Poor quality software
b. Poor software and poor testing
c. bad luck
d. insufficient time for testing
3.What is the main reason for testing software before releasing it?
a. to show that system will work after release
b. to decide when the software is of sufficient quality to release
c. to find as many bugs as possible before release
d. to give information for a risk based decision about release
4. which of the following statements is not true
a. performance testing can be done during unit testing as well as during the testing of whole system
b. The acceptance test does not necessarily include a regression test
c. Verification activities should not involve testers (reviews, inspections etc)
d. Test environments should be as similar to production environments as possible
5. When reporting faults found to developers, testers should be:
a. as polite, constructive and helpful as possible
b. firm about insisting that a bug is not a “feature” if it should be fixed
c. diplomatic, sensitive to the way they may react to criticism
d. All of the above
6.In which order should tests be run?
a. the most important tests first
b. the most difficult tests first(to allow maximum time for fixing)
c. the easiest tests first(to give initial confidence)
d. the order they are thought of
7. The later in the development life cycle a fault is discovered, the more expensive it is to fix. why?
a. the documentation is poor, so it takes longer to find out what the software is doing.
b. wages are rising
c. the fault has been built into more documentation,code,tests, etc
d. none of the above
8. Which is not true-The black box tester
a. should be able to understand a functional specification or requirements document
b. should be able to understand the source code.
c. is highly motivated to find faults
d. is creative to find the system’s weaknesses
9. A test design technique is
a. a process for selecting test cases
b. a process for determining expected outputs
c. a way to measure the quality of software
d. a way to measure in a test plan what has to be done
10. Testware(test cases, test dataset)
a. needs configuration management just like requirements, design and code
b. should be newly constructed for each new version of the software
c. is needed only until the software is released into production or use
d. does not need to be documented and commented, as it does not form part of the released
software system
11. An incident logging system
a only records defects
b is of limited value
c is a valuable source of project information during testing if it contains all incidents
d. should be used only by the test team.
12. Increasing the quality of the software, by better development methods, will affect the time needed for testing (the test phases) by:
a. reducing test time
b. no change
c. increasing test time
d. can’t say
13. Coverage measurement
a. is nothing to do with testing
b. is a partial measure of test thoroughness
c. branch coverage should be mandatory for all software
d. can only be applied at unit or module testing, not at system testing
14. When should you stop testing?
a. when time for testing has run out.
b. when all planned tests have been run
c. when the test completion criteria have been met
d. when no faults have been found by the tests run
15. Which of the following is true?
a. Component testing should be black box, system testing should be white box.
b. if u find a lot of bugs in testing, you should not be very confident about the quality of software
c. the fewer bugs you find,the better your testing was
d. the more tests you run, the more bugs you will find.
16. What is the important criterion in deciding what testing technique to use?
a. how well you know a particular technique
b. the objective of the test
c. how appropriate the technique is for testing the application
d. whether there is a tool to support the technique
17. If the pseudocode below were a programming language ,how many tests are required to achieve 100% statement coverage?
1. If x=3 then
2. Display_messageX;
3. If y=2 then
4. Display_messageY;
5. Else
6. Display_messageZ;
7. Else
8. Display_messageZ;
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
18. Using the same code example as question 17,how many tests are required to achieve 100% branch/decision coverage?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
19 Which of the following is NOT a type of non-functional test?
a. State-Transition
b. Usability
c. Performance
d. Security
20. Which of the following tools would you use to detect a memory leak?
a. State analysis
b. Coverage analysis
c. Dynamic analysis
d. Memory analysis
21. Which of the following is NOT a standard related to testing?
a. IEEE829
b. IEEE610
c. BS7925-1
d. BS7925-2
22.which of the following is the component test standard?
a. IEEE 829
b. IEEE 610
c. BS7925-1
d. BS7925-2
23 which of the following statements are true?
a. Faults in program specifications are the most expensive to fix.
b. Faults in code are the most expensive to fix.
c. Faults in requirements are the most expensive to fix
d. Faults in designs are the most expensive to fix.
24. Which of the following is not the integration strategy?
a. Design based
b. Big-bang
c. Bottom-up
d. Top-down
25. Which of the following is a black box design technique?
a. statement testing
b. equivalence partitioning
c. error- guessing
d. usability testing
26. A program with high cyclometic complexity is almost likely to be:
a. Large
b. Small
c. Difficult to write
d. Difficult to test
27. Which of the following is a static test?
a. code inspection
b. coverage analysis
c. usability assessment
d. installation test
28. Which of the following is the odd one out?
a. white box
b. glass box
c. structural
d. functional
29. A program validates a numeric field as follows:
values less than 10 are rejected, values between 10 and 21 are accepted, values greater than or equal to 22 are rejected
which of the following input values cover all of the equivalence partitions?
a. 10,11,21
b. 3,20,21
c. 3,10,22
d. 10,21,22
30. Using the same specifications as question 29, which of the following covers the MOST boundary values?
a. 9,10,11,22
b. 9,10,21,22
c. 10,11,21,22
d. 10,11,20,21
1.d
2.b
3.d
4.c
5.d
6.a
7.c
8.b
9.a
10.a
11.c
12.a
13.b
14.c
15.b
16.b
17.c
18.c
19.a
20.c
21.b
22.d
23.c
24.a
25.b
26.d
27.a
28.d
29.c
30.b
Posted by Shailaja Kiran at 01:53 13 comments
Labels: ISTQB/ISEB, Sample Papers, Testing
ISTQB Sample Paper # 1
1 When what is visible to end-users is a deviation from the specific or expected behavior, this is called:
a) an error
b) a fault
c) a failure
d) a defect
e) a mistake
2 Regression testing should be performed:
v) every week
w) after the software has changed
x) as often as possible
y) when the environment has changed
z) when the project manager says
a) v & w are true, x – z are false
b) w, x & y are true, v & z are false
c) w & y are true, v, x & z are false
d) w is true, v, x y and z are false
e) all of the above are true
3 IEEE 829 test plan documentation standard contains all of the following except:
a) test items
b) test deliverables
c) test tasks
d) test environment
e) test specification
4 Testing should be stopped when:
a) all the planned tests have been run
b) time has run out
c) all faults have been fixed correctly
d) both a) and c)
e) it depends on the risks for the system being tested
5 Order numbers on a stock control system can range between 10000 and 99999 inclusive. Which of the following inputs might be a result of designing tests for only valid equivalence classes and valid boundaries:
a) 1000, 5000, 99999
b) 9999, 50000, 100000
c) 10000, 50000, 99999
d) 10000, 99999
e) 9999, 10000, 50000, 99999, 10000
6 Consider the following statements about early test design:
i. early test design can prevent fault multiplication
ii. faults found during early test design are more expensive to fix
iii. early test design can find faults
iv. early test design can cause changes to the requirements
v. early test design takes more effort
a) i, iii & iv are true. Ii & v are false
b) iii is true, I, ii, iv & v are false
c) iii & iv are true. i, ii & v are false
d) i, iii, iv & v are true, ii us false
e) i & iii are true, ii, iv & v are false
7 Non-functional system testing includes:
a) testing to see where the system does not function properly
b) testing quality attributes of the system including performance and usability
c) testing a system feature using only the software required for that action
d) testing a system feature using only the software required for that function
e) testing for functions that should not exist
8 Which of the following is NOT part of configuration management:
a) status accounting of configuration items
b) auditing conformance to ISO9001
c) identification of test versions
d) record of changes to documentation over time
e) controlled library access
9 Which of the following is the main purpose of the integration strategy for integration testing in the small?
a) to ensure that all of the small modules are tested adequately
b) to ensure that the system interfaces to other systems and networks
c) to specify which modules to combine when and how many at once
d) to ensure that the integration testing can be performed by a small team
e) to specify how the software should be divided into modules
10 What is the purpose of test completion criteria in a test plan:
a) to know when a specific test has finished its execution
b) to ensure that the test case specification is complete
c) to set the criteria used in generating test inputs
d) to know when test planning is complete
e) to plan when to stop testing
11 Consider the following statements
i. an incident may be closed without being fixed
ii. incidents may not be raised against documentation
iii. the final stage of incident tracking is fixing
iv. the incident record does not include information on test environments
v. incidents should be raised when someone other than the author of the software performs the test
a) ii and v are true, I, iii and iv are false
b) i and v are true, ii, iii and iv are false
c) i, iv and v are true, ii and iii are false
d) i and ii are true, iii, iv and v are false
e) i is true, ii, iii, iv and v are false
12 Given the following code, which is true about the minimum number of test cases required for full statement and branch coverage:
Read P
Read Q
IF P+Q > 100 THEN
Print “Large”
ENDIF
If P > 50 THEN
Print “P Large”
ENDIF
a) 1 test for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage
b) 1 test for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
c) 1 test for statement coverage, 1 for branch coverage
d) 2 tests for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage
e) 2 tests for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
13 Given the following:
Switch PC on
Start “outlook”
IF outlook appears THEN
Send an email
Close outlook
a) 1 test for statement coverage, 1 for branch coverage
b) 1 test for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
c) 1 test for statement coverage. 3 for branch coverage
d) 2 tests for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
e) 2 tests for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage
14 Given the following code, which is true:
IF A > B THEN
C = A – B
ELSE
C = A + B
ENDIF
Read D
IF C = D Then
Print “Error”
ENDIF
a) 1 test for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage
b) 2 tests for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
c) 2 tests for statement coverage. 3 for branch coverage
d) 3 tests for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage
e) 3 tests for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
15 Consider the following:
Pick up and read the newspaper
Look at what is on television
If there is a program that you are interested in watching then switch the the television on and watch the program
Otherwise
Continue reading the newspaper
If there is a crossword in the newspaper then try and complete the crossword
a) SC = 1 and DC = 1
b) SC = 1 and DC = 2
c) SC = 1 and DC = 3
d) SC = 2 and DC = 2
e) SC = 2 and DC = 3
16 The place to start if you want a (new) test tool is:
a) Attend a tool exhibition
b) Invite a vendor to give a demo
c) Analyse your needs and requirements
d) Find out what your budget would be for the tool
e) Search the internet
17 When a new testing tool is purchased, it should be used first by:
a) A small team to establish the best way to use the tool
b) Everyone who may eventually have some use for the tool
c) The independent testing team
d) The managers to see what projects it should be used in
e) The vendor contractor to write the initial scripts
18 What can static analysis NOT find?
a) The use of a variable before it has been defined
b) Unreachable (“dead”) code
c) Whether the value stored in a variable is correct
d) The re-definition of a variable before it has been used
e) Array bound violations
19 Which of the following is NOT a black box technique:
a) Equivalence partitioning
b) State transition testing
c) LCSAJ
d) Syntax testing
e) Boundary value analysis
20 Beta testing is:
a) Performed by customers at their own site
b) Performed by customers at their software developer’s site
c) Performed by an independent test team
d) Useful to test bespoke software
e) Performed as early as possible in the lifecycle
21 Given the following types of tool, which tools would typically be used by developers and which by an independent test team:
i. static analysis
ii. performance testing
iii. test management
iv. dynamic analysis
v. test running
vi. test data preparation
a) developers would typically use i, iv and vi; test team ii, iii and v
b) developers would typically use i and iv; test team ii, iii, v and vi
c) developers would typically use i, ii, iii and iv; test team v and vi
d) developers would typically use ii, iv and vi; test team I, ii and v
e) developers would typically use i, iii, iv and v; test team ii and vi
22 The main focus of acceptance testing is:
a) finding faults in the system
b) ensuring that the system is acceptable to all users
c) testing the system with other systems
d) testing for a business perspective
e) testing by an independent test team
23 Which of the following statements about the component testing standard is false:
a) black box design techniques all have an associated measurement technique
b) white box design techniques all have an associated measurement technique
c) cyclomatic complexity is not a test measurement technique
d) black box measurement techniques all have an associated test design technique
e) white box measurement techniques all have an associated test design technique
24 Which of the following statements is NOT true:
a) inspection is the most formal review process
b) inspections should be led by a trained leader
c) managers can perform inspections on management documents
d) inspection is appropriate even when there are no written documents
e) inspection compares documents with predecessor (source) documents
25 A typical commercial test execution tool would be able to perform all of the following EXCEPT:
a) generating expected outputs
b) replaying inputs according to a programmed script
c) comparison of expected outcomes with actual outcomes
d) recording test inputs
e) reading test values from a data file
26 The difference between re-testing and regression testing is
a) re-testing is running a test again; regression testing looks for unexpected side effects
b) re-testing looks for unexpected side effects; regression testing is repeating those tests
c) re-testing is done after faults are fixed; regression testing is done earlier
d) re-testing uses different environments, regression testing uses the same environment
e) re-testing is done by developers, regression testing is done by independent testers
27 Expected results are:
a) only important in system testing
b) only used in component testing
c) never specified in advance
d) most useful when specified in advance
e) derived from the code
28 Test managers should not:
a) report on deviations from the project plan
b) sign the system off for release
c) re-allocate resource to meet original plans
d) raise incidents on faults that they have found
e) provide information for risk analysis and quality improvement
29 Unreachable code would best be found using:
a) code reviews
b) code inspections
c) a coverage tool
d) a test management tool
e) a static analysis tool
30 A tool that supports traceability, recording of incidents or scheduling of tests is called:
a) a dynamic analysis tool
b) a test execution tool
c) a debugging tool
d) a test management tool
e) a configuration management tool
31 What information need not be included in a test incident report:
a) how to fix the fault
b) how to reproduce the fault
c) test environment details
d) severity, priority
e) the actual and expected outcomes
32 Which expression best matches the following characteristics or review processes:
1. led by author
2. undocumented
3. no management participation
4. led by a trained moderator or leader
5. uses entry exit criteria
s) inspection
t) peer review
u) informal review
v) walkthrough
a) s = 4, t = 3, u = 2 and 5, v = 1
b) s = 4 and 5, t = 3, u = 2, v = 1
c) s = 1 and 5, t = 3, u = 2, v = 4
d) s = 5, t = 4, u = 3, v = 1 and 2
e) s = 4 and 5, t = 1, u = 2, v = 3
33 Which of the following is NOT part of system testing:
a) business process-based testing
b) performance, load and stress testing
c) requirements-based testing
d) usability testing
e) top-down integration testing
34 What statement about expected outcomes is FALSE:
a) expected outcomes are defined by the software’s behaviour
b) expected outcomes are derived from a specification, not from the code
c) expected outcomes include outputs to a screen and changes to files and databases
d) expected outcomes should be predicted before a test is run
e) expected outcomes may include timing constraints such as response times
35 The standard that gives definitions of testing terms is:
a) ISO/IEC 12207
b) BS7925-1
c) BS7925-2
d) ANSI/IEEE 829
e) ANSI/IEEE 729
36 The cost of fixing a fault:
a) Is not important
b) Increases as we move the product towards live use
c) Decreases as we move the product towards live use
d) Is more expensive if found in requirements than functional design
e) Can never be determined
37 Which of the following is NOT included in the Test Plan document of the Test Documentation Standard:
a) Test items (i.e. software versions)
b) What is not to be tested
c) Test environments
d) Quality plans
e) Schedules and deadlines
38 Could reviews or inspections be considered part of testing:
a) No, because they apply to development documentation
b) No, because they are normally applied before testing
c) No, because they do not apply to the test documentation
d) Yes, because both help detect faults and improve quality
e) Yes, because testing includes all non-constructive activities
39 Which of the following is not part of performance testing:
a) Measuring response time
b) Measuring transaction rates
c) Recovery testing
d) Simulating many users
e) Generating many transactions
40 Error guessing is best used
a) As the first approach to deriving test cases
b) After more formal techniques have been applied
c) By inexperienced testers
d) After the system has gone live
e) Only by end users
Question number Correct answer
1 C
2 C
3 E
4 E
5 C
6 A
7 B
8 B
9 C
10 E
11 B
12 B
13 B
14 B
15 E
16 C
17 B
18 C
19 C
20 A
21 B
22 D
23 A
24 D
25 A
26 A
27 D
28 C
29 A
30 E
31 E
32 B
33 E
34 A
35 B
36 B
37 D
38 D
39 C
40 B
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